Jesus is LORD

Submitted by Oliver (United States), Jan 22, 2008 at 21:28

My dear TAJ – you make some interesting points – BUT …

What if you and your brother were talking about a car neither of you had ever seen – except for some written documentation from two separate sources – each of these sources identify ‘the Car' with different proper names – each of the sources claim that its Car is ‘the Car' for you – can you or your brother be certain you are talking about the ‘same Car'?

As for ‘Adonai' – it is certainly true the Jews adopted the use of Adonai to refer to YHWH whenever the need to refer to YHWH came about (not just prayer). However, in the LXX (a Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures) the Jewish scholars used the Greek word Kurios for YHWH. Why? Because Adonai means Lord in Hebrew and Kurios means Lord in Greek. In many English translations of the Hebrew Scriptures YHWH is represented as LORD in deference to the usage in the LXX. Kurios appears in the Greek NT around 650 times – in every case it refers to the God of the Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Jesus is LORD).

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".