I'm getting dizzy ... again

Submitted by Oliver (United States), Apr 18, 2008 at 02:02

By the time the LXX was 'translated' the Jews had already stopped speaking the Name of GOD (YHVH). By what criteria they 'translated' YHVH sometimes as Adonai or Theos I haven't a clue.

I would be interested in seeing any attempt to transliterate YHVH into Greek letters - try it - please.

I don't know why the Jews chose to stop using YHVH in appropriate conversation - it shows up nearly 8000 times in the Tanakh - and not always (or even ever) on the lips of the High Priest. The commandment was not to use His NAME in 'vain' - obviously prayer, supplication or praise would not be vain usage. Didn't Abraham call upon the NAME of the LORD? Why shouldn't you or I or anyone?

Better to have YHVH on your lips then the name(s) of any other god(s). [i.e. Allah]

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