One last try ...

Submitted by Oliver (United States), Apr 25, 2008 at 17:14

zzazzefrazzee – you wrote …

Blah … Blah … Blah …

Furthermore, traditions prevail that the 9th c Hunayn ibn Ishaq, a native of the Christian community of Hira, also translated the Tanakh and New Testaments into Arabic.

Muslims who support Qur'anic inerrancy support the idea that the Bible was never written in Arabic before the advent of Islam. Arabic Christians who support the notion of Qur'anic "borrowing" which Muslims are intent to deny, support the idea that such a text did in fact exist, but was subsequently destroyed by Muslims to prevent any evidence for Qur'anic "borrowing" from coming to light.

By denying that the term "Allah" has Christian precedence, wouldn't you also thereby undermine the notion that portions of the Qur'an were "borrowed" rather than "revelaed"?

Blah … Blah … Blah …

In one of my early posts I suggested first 3 and then a 4^th reason that Arabic speaking ‘Christians' would continue to use the term Allah (the NAME of the god of Islam) to refer to the true and living god as:

1] Ignorance, 2] Habit, 3] Compulsion OR 4] Retaliation.

Regardless of the reasoning, one must consider the prospect that the setting aside of the commands of YHVH to undermine the claims of an opponent is a very dangerous proposition. Just think about it.

I have found a website wherein someone submits that the entire Quran was actually written by Arabic speaking ‘Christians' (acting as scribes no-doubt) and that much of the thing is a craftily designed reiteration of the Book of Revelation – isn't that a hoot? Take a look …

http://www.wikiislam.com/wiki/The_Koranic_Bible

I hereby declare my intention to ‘agree to disagree' with you on this matter – may you fare well.

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