The useage of al-ilah in pre-islamasized Arabic is not the point ... wait - maybe it is ...

Submitted by Oliver (United States), Mar 5, 2008 at 22:23

"Allah is simply the elision of the definite article "al" with the word "ilah".

Haven't I said that any number of times? The 'term' allah (the contraction, if you will) was in 'use' by the pagan Arabs for centuries before any Christians were ever present in Arabia - Allah is the name of the chief god of the pagan Arab pantheon - deny it if you will. IMO if 'Christians' were using the term al-ilah during pre-Islamic times, and I'm not suggesting that they were not, isn't it logical to deduce that they were trying to differentiate 'the god' they were representing (Jesus) from the pagan god of the Arabs (Allah)? Agreeing on that point, to what 'advantage' to Christians would be the reversion to using the name of the Arab pagan god (Allah) as a reference to the god they were trying to differentiate their god (Jesus) from? If Arabic speaking Christians, today, were still using the term al-ilah there would be no problem - but because Arabic has become Islamasized so that god can only be called Allah - what reasons can be given for the use of the name of the god of Islam to refer to 'the Only-Begotten Son of God' (Jesus) other than: 1] ignorance, 2] habit or 3] complusion? Let me 'echo' the words of our friend Dhimmi ...

"So let me ask you the question for the Nth time: Why do Christian Arabs (read this as Copts and Syrians and Chaldeans etc...) call their God, Jesus that is, Allah? Why is that our dear zzazz? Can you guess? I will not ask you to provide us with evidence. Just guess." WHY?

في البدء كان الكلمة والكلمة كان عند الله وكان الكلمة الله

John 1:1 en arch hn o logoV kai o logoV hn proV ton qeon kai qeoV hn o logoV

I think you misread my question regarding John 1:1 - I wasn't asking you to show me the Arabic for John 1:1 - I was asking you to agree with the meaning of my paraphase - GET IT? In any case, I think I see the Arabic 'term' allah appearing twice in this verse. If this had been translated in pre-Islamic times, would we be seeing al-ilah instead of allah? I THINK SO! In the Greek the word translated allah is ton theon or theos, this word is generic in nature - that is, it can be used to reference ANY god. Why must we translate theos in to allah if pre-Islamic Christians were using al-ilah? WHY? Is it because Arabic has become Islamasized? I THINK SO! Is it because Arabic speaking Christians are suffering from the long term effects of Dhimmitude? I THINK SO!

You allude that I 'cherry-pick' my sources and quotes and I chose to interpret them to suit my own suppositions - but haven't done the same (and I don't criticize you for it) ...

Catholic Encyclopedia Allah The name of God in Arabic.

It is a compound word from the article, 'al, and ilah, divinity, and signifies "the god" par excellence. This form of the divine name is in itself a sure proof that ilah was at one time an appellative, common to all the local and tribal gods. Gradually, with the addition of the article, it was restricted to one of them who took precedence of the others; finally, with the triumph of monotheism, He was recognized as the only true God.

Let it be noted that although Allah is an Arabic term, it is used by all Moslems, whatever be their language, as the name of God.

SO - Allah is the NAME of god in Arabic. [is al-ilah the NAME of god in Arabic?] Ilah is (was) a word COMMON to ALL the local and tribal gods - by my definition a generic word to refer to god(s). But when you add the article you have something more specific that became restricted or applied to a particular one of these many tribal gods who became identified as the chief of these pagan gods - Allah. It was not until the rise of Islam (the ONLY monotheistic religion to 'triumph' in Arabia - by the sword, might I add) that Allah was said to be 'the only true god'. This use of Allah is not a Jewish or Christian innovation but an Islamic coercion.

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