Our dear zzazz and half knowledge

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Mar 1, 2008 at 22:02

You wrote the following gems

1) Arabic bibles have been around now for some time, they may not be as old as the Dead Sea Scrolls, but they a have a tradition of use dating back more than 1,100 years.

ROTFL. What on earth are you talking about? Do you really know anyhting about the dating of the Dead Sea Scrolls? this is really insane! as for complete and extant translations of the Bible into Arabic they exist from about the year 1000CE .

2) The name of "Allah" is found in Arabic bibles. Cold it be that the name of "Allah" was used by Arab Christian converts from BEFORE the arrival of Islam?

So you can find the word Allah in the Arabic translations of the Bible then what is really your point? I can also find the word Dieu is the French translations of the Qur'an. And how many times do I have to tell you that more likely than not the Arabic word Allah is a loan word from Syriac Alaha/Allaha arabized as Allah

As for your question: "could it be that the name "Allah" was used by Arab Christian converts from before the arrival of Islam"

Much of Pre-Islamic extant Arabic epigraphy is a mix of Arabic and Syriac which makes me suspect that those Arabs must have used the word Allah which is the Arabized Syriac word Aalaha/Allaha

>3) The name of "Allah" is also found in pre-Islamic Poetry. One cannot be certain that all such poetry was the work of pagans. There were Arabic Christian and Jewish communities on the Arabian Peninsula. Can we rule out that these Arab Jews and Christians never used the term "Allah"?

Did you ever read Taha Husein or Wansbrough? Surpirse surprise but most of the so called al-shi3r al-jahili (oh I forgot that you ain't no Arab well may be you can ask your Mullah to tell you what this means) was made up by the 3Ulama in the 3rd century of islam to tackle issues of garmmar and syntax in the Qur'an that were at variance with good Arabic grammar. And the rule is; this poeptry is anachronistic and suspect unless proven otherwise just like the hadith and the sira in other words; Bogus. How come you did not know that?

Oh yeah and there is no historical evidence that Jewish communities existed in the Hijaz (see Hoyland) the Rabbinical sources are silent as well as the Syriac sources are silent about such communities. So let me tell you: there is no evidence that such communities ever existed

>4) A convenient loss of the historical record only helps to buttress claims made by people who have harbor ulterior sectarian ambitions. When discussing history, it behooves one to trust objective scholarship over the haranguing of sanctimonious zealots...

Before you utter this nonsesne you need to read some real books and here is one about extant historical evidence and it is:

"Arabia and the Arabs from the bronze age to the coming of Islam" by Hoyland

Oh yeah and the Bahia story is bogus as well as the so called Meccan Trade

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