Submitted by Prashant (United States), Aug 30, 2022 at 12:08
Dear Dr Pipes,
My knowledge of anti-semitism in Europe is very limited. My knowledge of why some Muslims oppose Jews is also limited. But I think that though both these phenomenons are despicable, they are not the same. Many times the term anti-semitism is used to describe the Muslim hatred of Jews. I will arreciate if you or if some other reader can explain Muslim hatred of Jews same as European anti-semitism.
Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".