Our dear Samer and the Greeks and the missing Persians and Arabian imperialism

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jun 23, 2008 at 07:55

Our dear Samer wrote

>h. 610 AD – The emergence of the last Prophet Mohammad (pbuh)

Oh so Joseph Smith does not count? As a matter of fact no one has a clue when was the first time Allah spoke to muhammad (if he ever existed) and was it really 610CE or was it Allahu a3lam?How come you did not know that?

>i. 621 AD – Prophet Mohammad ascension to Heavens through Jerusalem

Really? Oh al-buraq thing and what a joke. And where is your source for such fable? The Qur'an? Not really. Muslims had no clue about the sites of the Quranic al-masjad al-aqsa or al-masjad al-haram until the 11century CE when such fable was linked to Jeruslem. Even Tabari had no clue and you are ignorant

Oh you also forgot Omar al-farooq (oh the redeemer himself) and his little donkey entering the city of Jerusalem. But what is funny is the fact that the exyant Syriac sources are silent about such fable and do you know why? Because it never happened.

>j. 628 AD – The expulsion of the Jews from Arabian peninsula

Really? Could you provide us with extant historical evidence that there were indeed Jews in the Hijaz before 628CE? You are ignorant

For the readers the Rabbincal historical literary sources are silent about such Jewish communities and I suspect because they nere existed

>k. 629 AD – The recapture of Jerusalem by the Romans from the Persians

The adna thing again. Oh and the confused Qur'an so the Greeks lost and then they won and they lost again to the invading Arabs. But your Allah seems to have had no clue that the Greeks will lose to the invading Arabs or is it that we really do not even know what the Qur'an really says as in the case of reading it as the Greeks win and then they lose. So much for the Qur'an being kitab mubeen

And why would your Hijazi Allah use a Syriac word for the Greeks (al-ruum) when he could have used an Arabic word instead like al-yunaniyuun or al-ighreeq? Let me guess the Qur'an comes from the civilized Middle east where people spoke Syriac and it has nothing to do with the Hijaz?

>l. 636 AD – The conquest of Jerusalem peacefully by the Muslims

No it is called invasion but again you are no more than a victim of Arabian imperialism and I have the following questions for you:

1. Why did the arabs invade Jerusalem in 633CE? Let me guess: looting and oh giving 1/5 of the loot to Allah and his rasul?

2. Why did they not leave Jerusalem after taking care of the looting? and would you agree with me that this is ihtilal? Or illegal occupation?And why did the Umayyads reside in Syria and not the backward al-Hijaz? Could it be because the Arab invasion was no more than colonialism and who would have wanted to go back to Bakka? Oh darn it I mean Mecca?

3. And speaking of peace: Did you ever read the writings by Sophronius (circa 637CE) about the brutality of the Arabs that invaded his city? And did you read John of Nikiu's writings about the brutality of the Arabs?

4. And while we are at it: Why did those invading Arabs call themselves mihgraye (Syriac) or al-muhajiruun and not the Muslims? Could it be because there was no islam in 633CE?

5. More likely than not your ancestors were brutalized by the Arabs and their religion and you ain't no HIjazi Arab and you are no more than a another victim of their imperialism that started in 633CE

>I hope you will find this useful for you

I urge you to abandon Islam and be whole again and stop being a victim of their imperialism

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