Our dear Keith and modern Arabic and the Qur'an and masoritic exegesis of the Qur'an part deux

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Nov 10, 2008 at 09:05

Our dear Keith wrote

>For example, today when you hear that a man is Gay you think homosexual but 50 years ago it meant that the man was happy.

Comaring apples and oranges. I see. let us take the case of the word homosexual or gay or "men who have sex with men" or whatever you want to call it. There is no word in Modern Arabic or Middle Arabic for this matter that mean any of the above words. Educated modern Arabs use the loan word from English: gay and in colloquial Arabic they use the word khawal which I have never been able to establish where it comes from.

The Arabs always have had that tolerant attitude towards men having sex with other men as long as no one would talk about it. However, with the rise of homophobia in the Arab world (stemming from Western Judeo-Christian homophobia) in the past 50 years or so Muslim funddies had to consult the Qur'an and find a word and the word now is: Luwatti or el-luwatiyuun from the Quranic Lot. So you see the very fact that the Qur'an is literature/scripture it stablizes the meaning of a word and can be the source of more words as long as they follow Sibawayhe's concept of F3l. So your little foray here in something that you do not know is bogus and shame on you.

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