NO ARAB RACE PRE-500 BCE.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), Apr 10, 2010 at 19:51

>The reason we have no Arabic writing pre-400 CE

# But wait we also did not have many other languages back then that we have now so what is your point?

We certainly did have languages pre-400 CE. What's your point?

> is because the Arab race per se is recent.

Hello: Did you ever hear of the Arabs of Herodotus or did Hedodotus make this up?

Herodotus is less than 2,500 years; published around 400 BCE, the Greeks being the ones who introduced the term 'Arabs' generically for all Arabians: do you have anything older and verifiable? Some 50% of all that he says is either not provable or regarded as error. This is why you cannot produce an 'ARAB' reference pre-500 BCE – the only acceptable proof here, and with no possible excuse for its lacking: this people never experienced the exiles and dispersals as of the Jews. We have no Arab kings, queens, nations, wars or anything of Arab pre-500 BCE. Specifically, while the Hebrew writings mention a host of identifiable ancient nations – no Arab! Take Egypt for example, one of the most Arab regarded states: they are recent here – namely post-500 BCE; prior to this date Egypt was NOT Arab.

# and did you ever hear of the Arabs of the Periplus? and are you aware that significant Arab communities lived in the area of what is known as al-hilal al-khaseeb from time immorial? Let me gueess: Conspiracy theory also right?

No I have not heard of Arabs in Periplus, and time memorial needs evidence – where is yours – even an insignificant shred of evidence will suffice?

# Listen I have no like for the imperialism of the Arabs or for islam but we always have to tell the truth

I am only discussing historicity – not theology.

# And if you are Egyptian then did you read any books by Milad Hanna? If not then this would be a good start

A contemporary politician's view [7 pillars of Egypt!] is hardly a start and more a dead end, and cannot impact here. The Arabs are known for destroying any evidences of Jewish history, and are barring any research in Saudi Arabia of excavations, sealing the areas totally. You have no proof, no evidence and absolutely not a single reference to 'ARABS' pre-500 BCE. But you should have.

# And I'm curious: Do you know what is really diglossia? Let me guess you have no clue right?

Why 'curios'? My understanding is this refers to a prototype or related older language. All new languages have this trait with no alternative applying. Your own reference here negates your premise - namely, if diglossia applies then we should see transit evidences - but we do not! Your use of the Arafat term of TIME IMMORIAL clearly does not provide us any semblance of its notorious premise: if your term has any merit we should see 1000's of such references strewn across historical archives and relics – far more than that of the Jews who were a late comer in the ancient world, and always subjective to wars and exiles. We have NOTHING - what's your excuse?

And I'm curious, what do you think of the archives calling Judea pre-70 CE as Palestine!? This terrible falsehood of history and heritage negation of Judaism is now spread globally, and not a single 'Historian' objects. Wiki is notorious, no?

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