Cherry picking time and our dear iam and EA

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 20, 2010 at 18:51

Our dear Iam who has no clue what is really EA or no clue if it is a language or a dialect and who told us that there were really no Arabs or Arabic language before 400CE then when he was reminded about Herodotus' Arabs he changed his bogus claim to 500BCE! Oh the Arabs of the Periplus? God forbid he has no clue what is really the Periplus! And when he was provided with evidence that we have Arabic language inscriptions in let us say Qaryat al-Faw dated to 300BCE he just avoided dealing with this fact

I call this dishonesty

>Hello: The Arabs INVADED Egypt in 642CE!!!# TRUE. Egypt was not Arab but invaded by Arabs after Islam emerged - same as with Israel, Jerusalem, Pakistan, Bangladesh - and now Kashmir. The Arabs destroyed the Egytian temples and Jewish synagogues and dumped mosques on them - then claimed there was no Jewish temple in Jerusalem and the Protocols of Zion is real history.

And in 642 CE is when EA started and this is what this thread is all about.

Then I wrote

>you requested that you are to be provided with a reference and I told you to go and read Jan Resto's book so did you read the book? Let me guess you did not right? And here are two more books1. Arabia and the Arabs from the bronze age to the coming of Islam by Hoyland2. Kees Versteegh's "The Arabic language" and its historyAnd do us a favor: Learn to read a book!!!!

And this is our dear iam's answer

># No proof there. The reason we have no Arab writings or names, cities, kings, wars, monuments pre-500 BCE.

I read this as you did not read not a sinlge word in either book right mr fake?

>and also no imprints from 900 BCE to 500 BCE - and there must be, as seen in every other nation's history. I also showed you that even allowing the 900 BCE lie -Oh the "conspiracy theory" You lived with Muslims for too long# I have never lived with Muslims.

But you live in Australia right our dear iam? Hello: there is about 400,000 Muslims in Australia right? then you live among Muslims

>I respond according to evidential historical facts only.

I will leave this remark to the readers to judge you and judge your ignorance

>Oh no not Ibrahim wa musa again!!!# Those are not correct name spelling.

Hello: we are talking about the Arabic language here remember?

>Check the dead sea scrolls if in doubt - and you do not have an earlier writings than that!

So? And the Egyptian book of the dead is much older than your Bible and your dead sea scrolls remember?

> I showed you that Arabic never possessed the 'V' sound,So? And Hebrew does not have the letter dad right? so what?# That is why you mispell Abraham with a B. The correct name is with a V: Avraham. Arabic never possessed the V.

So? and Arabic hah becomes Hebrew Kha sound and Syriac and Hebrew P becomes Arabic feh and Coptic V is really a Beta so what?

>Mr ignorant the Jews used Aramaic as their language for writing for a long period of time that does not mean the the Jews did not exist and the Arabs did the same and this is why we have the Garshouni Arabic remember? and the Copts stopped using the Egyptian language for almost 200 years before the introduction of and were only using Greek this does not mean that the Copts did not exist# Aramaic was a street language and used when the Hebrew was barred, to speak with non-Hebrews. Your problem is we have ancient Hebrew dating 3000 years adjacent to Aramaic - but no Arabic pre-400 CE!

You did not get it did you? the Arabs also used Syriac and Aramaic just like the Jews! now do you get it ?

Hello: We have epigraphy from Qarayt al-Faw that dates to 300BCE and how come you did not know that? And the namara insrciption is dated to 328CE! You are a fake and a ghalabwi! What is a ghalabawi? you can ask one of your Arabic speaking friends to tell you what it means

>Oh no not Musa wa Ibrahim! You tell us what does Musa and Ibrahim have to do with EA? Surpise me with an answer# Musa is new - its Arabic.

So? and so is Ibrahim and as a matter of fact the proper names in the Qur'an are loan words not from Hebrew but from Syriac (gasp!) And what a fadiha

>Hello: The first attested record of "The Arabs" is 900BCE GET OVER IT# These has no connection with ARABS. The reason we see no Arab cities or any historical imprints till 500 BCE - well after Persia conquered Babylon.

Then write a book and prove them wrong is this asking for much?

But you know what? You have no clue what is really "argument from silence" right ?

>The Quran, which came 1000 years later,

Not true. There are parts in the Qur'an that must pre-date Muhammad by hundreds of years and an example are the verses about ahl al-layka or ayka do you want to know more then just ask

>merely copied from the Jews what was already in the Hebrew bible - changing and adding names as its only input.

So? religious nuts "borrow" from other religious nuts

Then I wrote

>Then why did you utter this nonsesne that the only source of the history of Egypt was the Bible?

And this is our dear iam's answer

># Because the Hebrew writings and the Hebrew nation predate Greece and Rome.

Gobbledygook

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