Our dear iam and the word ghalabawi

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 27, 2010 at 06:44

our dear iam

>English is my first language.

No it is not and there is nothing wrong with that but you need to work on your ideas, your syntax and your poor logic . And you are not very focused

> That most of the world says Arab and Arabian are the same does not mean this is also historically true. The Greek invaders dumped the term ARAB on gangs who started to dominate other Arabian peoples in this region by sword, conquering and stealing their lands, and forced conversion, and that is how this name stuck.The Greeks used the generic term Arabian and called everyone in Arabia as Arab. We know that Jews & Coptics predate the Arabs and are 100% Arabian peoples - but Jews and coptics can be Arabian but not Arab. Egypt was not Arab, though the Arabs rule this country by robbery and persecuting the original Coptics here.This is why no one can produce any ARABS pre-500 BCE. They corrupt words like Aramean, arvi and Arabian - but there are no imprints of Arabs, Arabic kings, cities, nations, monuments of Arabs pre-500 BCE. We find only corrupted translations of calling other Arabian peoples as ARAB. Of course, we find transit imprints of Jews, Greeks, Kurds, Coptics and pre-Islamic Druze well before 500 BCE dating back 3000 years, with transit historical imprints - but nothing of the ARABS: guess why! This is true despite that the Jews were in constant dispersal while the Arabs were not despersed.

Now you tell me what does this have to do with: "what does the word Arab mean and what does the word Arabian mean" and this is a question of language the English language that is. So how can you prove me wrong? Hint: Dictionary!! Is this asking for much?

Oh the word ghalabawi? Look it up in a dictionary

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