And the comedy goes on and on

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 17, 2010 at 07:57

More comedy from our dear iamjoseph

>Hello: what does the so called law of precedence whatever that is have to do with EA (Egyptian Arabic)?# We see a serial array of lies, whereby the hands are not clean - a jurisdiction term. There is no EA either - that is why there is no chain of dots from Egypt to Arabic, as seen with every other nation and language. The term ARAB is never seen pre-500 BCE. You are exploiting the generic deriving of all people from Arabia as being aligned with Arab - while there has never been any Arab group or race, nor any Arab language or writings pre-500 BCE - but there certainly has been a host of other nations, languages and groups pre-500 BCE. Its like Iraq & Jordan - ficticious states created behind closed doors 120 years ago - unlike Israel and now boasted as 'ISLAMIC SACRED SOIL'. Is Pakistan Islamic sacred soil too - as you claim of Jerusalem?

Let me repeat again: Hello: What does this have to do with EA? Let me guess nothing right?

>And what does islamic law have to do with EA?# Both are fictions. Please tell us of any Islamic law which is from Islam?

Careless reader: What does EA have to do with islamic law? Surpise me with an answer

>namely if there is a same law in the Quran and Hebrew bible - the precedence ruled. Yes/no?What does this have to do with EA? Surpise me for a change.# There is no precedence of Islamic laws, just like there is no precedence of EA. There is only laws predating Islam seen in the Hebrew bible, and there is Egyptian - but no Egyptian Arabic, and no mention of 'ARAB' in Egypt or re-500 BCE. Still confused?

Hello: The Arabs INVADED Egypt in 642CE!!!

>I suspect the precedence factor is a stumbling block for you. Was Moses Muslim by belief - or Hebrew, the son of Amran and Yochabeth?What does Moses or Amran have to do with Egyptian Arabic? Oh wait spare us this one# It has a lot to do with it. Moses was *NOT* a Muslim by belief or historically, as advocated by Muslims - its about the lie there was no Jewish temple under the Mosque in Jerusalem and Protocolian stuff. Moses had Hebrew parents - and the omission of this is a mark against Muslims, the silence by all Muslims constituting a lie-by-omission, and a failed attempt of Israel's heritage genocide.

As I suspected: More gobbledygook

># No sir. There actually was a Jewish temple and the Mosque stands on that site, denied by all Muslims today. So there is no problem understanding how you claim an EA or Muslim Pretend Palestineans. Unclean hands?

Yes we know that the islamic story of al-isra' wa al-mi3raj does not make any sense and no one has a clue what it means but what does this have to do with EA?

>There were no 'ARABS' nor Arabic writings in the Pharoahic times.So? And by the way did you ever hear of Herodotus' Arabs? If not then go and read some real history# Heridotus is post 500-BCE.Then we have established that there were really Arabs as far back as 500 BCE right?Hello: you are a demagogue sorry it is not a Hebrew word># Why? I can easily be refuted -

Refute what? you are and you must pardon me a demagogue and no more

>all you need do is put some hard proof on the table. Consider that the world witnessed the dead sea scrolls asserting Israel's history, 100's of alphabetical Hebrew books, detailing the exact sizes and locations of the Jewish temple. Where are the Arabic and/or Islamic Dead sea scrolls? This is fully encumbent, considering Arabs were never displaced or exiled, as were the Jews. Looks like I am demagogue for requesting such proof!

What proof?And what does this have to with EA? Surpise me!!

># If I said there were no Arabs pre-500 BCE - what do you think it means!?But we have established that there were "Arabs" in 900BCE or did you forget?# No, you have not established it at all! I showed you how there was no word Arab before 500 BCE,

Mr. ignorant you requested that you are to be provided with a reference and I told you to go and read Jan Resto's book so did you read the book? Let me guess you did not right? And here are two more books

1. Arabia and the Arabs from the bronze age to the coming of Islam by Hoyland

2. Kees Versteegh's "The Arabic language" and its history

And do us a favor: Learn to read a book!!!!

>and also no imprints from 900 BCE to 500 BCE - and there must be, as seen in every other nation's history. I also showed you that even allowing the 900 BCE lie -

Oh the "conspiracy theory" You lived with Muslims for too long

But what lie ? The liar is not Resto but the ignorant is you

>you still have no connection to Abraham r Moses, via history or belief.

Oh no not Ibrahim wa musa again!!!

> I showed you that Arabic never possessed the 'V' sound,

So? And Hebrew does not have the letter dad right? so what?

>so Arvi has no alignment with Arabs. I showed to there was never any pre-500 BCE Arab kings, cities, wars, monuments, writings - nothing at all, which is an anomoly with any other nation in this region. The Jews, the Kurds, the Coptics - all predate ARABS, and none of them spoke Arabic!

Mr ignorant the Jews used Aramaic as their language for writing for a long period of time that does not mean the the Jews did not exist and the Arabs did the same and this is why we have the Garshouni Arabic remember? and the Copts stopped using the Egyptian language for almost 200 years before the introduction of and were only using Greek this does not mean that the Copts did not exist

>At the very least, it lays credibility about the falsehoods spread by Muslims about Moses, Abraham and any means of history recall of those who yet never had writings for a 1000 years.Bogus as you shall see below> Muslims have a problem admitting anything about Jewish history - it contradicts the sermons in Islamic Madarassas and schools.So what is the difference between a madrassa and a midrash? Not very much and you are the evidence# There was nothing below about any counter that the pre-Islamic Arabs at no time observed the beliefs of Abraham or Moses - you ran from the issue.

Oh no not Musa wa Ibrahim! You tell us what does Musa and Ibrahim have to do with EA? Surpise me with an answer

> The difference between the Medrash or any Hebrew, is it is historically based with evidence. Over 70% of the Hebrew bible has been scientifically proven - unlike anything Arabic.

No you did not get it al-madaris al-islamiyya produce total ignorance and so is midrash!

>The first mention of ancient Egyptian culture and history, is mentioned only in the Torah.Really? Did you really study the history of Ancient Egypt? Let me guess: you never did and you only learned by pure fahlawa right? If so then go and read a real book of history# Yes, I have.You did? Mash'allah># I studied ancient history, including the greek writers you mention about Arabs and found Arab history is not so ancient. Instead of congratulating me with uncalled for sarcasm, enlighten with some proof: guess why we have no Arab kings, nations, capitals, wars, names pre-500 BCE!# You are not catering to any ssues: please show us any proof of Egypt's descriptions older than the Hebrew bible? If there was any EA, you should have 100's of dead sea scrolls - which museum?But I just told you that there were Arabs back in 900BCE and they have their own tribes even back then.# Yes, you 'TOLD' me - and I showed you how this was totally false.

Then write a book and refute Resto and Versteegh and Hoyland and I will be watching you making a fool of yourself

>Arabs are less than 2,500 years old; Arabic is 1600 years old. Nothing exists before these dates or in transit imprints between those dates. Unlike the Hebrew, the Greek, the Roman, the Egytian, the Indian, the Chinese - the Arab claims are as bogus as the denial of the Jewish temple and the term of Pretend PLESTINEANS. What's next - Islamic Zionists being persecuted by the foreign, alian Jews?

Hello: The first attested record of "The Arabs" is 900BCE GET OVER IT

>is in the Hebrew bible,What is in the Hebrew Bible? Oh the history of Egypt? Sobhanallah!Yes. I gave many historical examples of ancient Egypt in the Hebrew bible.Let me repeat it the Hebrew Bible is a book of history? Sobhanallah# Absolutely, and perhaps the first historical book in existence. We find historical names, kings, wars, cities, travel routes, diets, inter-nation back-ups, historical books going back 1000's of years. Pithom, Goshen, Mount Ararat, Abraham, Jerusalem, the Medianites, Gaza, Jericho, Hebron and the river Tigris are first introduced to humanity in the Hebrew bible.

As the Arabs would say: wa minkum nastafeed and this is sarcasm

> But it still says the Hebrew bible reigns here, and that Arabs could have no input here - they never yet existed. All of archeology of Egypt, till 150 years ago, was derived from the Hebrew bible exclusively.# did you ever hear of Manetho?Yes: I quote, " Manetho His work, the Aegyptiaca (History of Egypt), is the most important source, although no complete firsthand record of this book survives and the facts it contained are not regarded as completely reliable. The work is preserved in edited extracts in the writings of Flavius Josephus (c.AD 79), ;Manetho was a Graeco-Egyptian priest in the Temple of Heliopolis. He was born in Sebennytos (in the Delta) during the Third Centuary A.D. His "Egyptian History" divided the rulers into dynasties, or ruling houses and formed the basis of the modern system of dating Ancient Egypt. He had access to many sources which no longer exist (such as temple records), but also included legends and fanciful stories. As a result, you have to take some of his stories with a pinch of salt. No full copies of Manetho's text remain, we only have short sections of text and a few references in the writings of Josephus Flavius (first century A.D), Sextus Julius Africanus (third century B.C), Eusebius of Cesarea (third/fourth century B.C) and George Syncellos (a Byzantine historian from the eighth century A.D). As a result, our knowledge of the original text is limited, and coloured by the opinions of the authors who referred to him. [http://www.ancientegyptonline.co.uk/manetho.html] The fact is, unlike the Hebrew books

Then why did you utter this nonsesne that the only source of the history of Egypt was the Bible?

>- there is no proof whatsoever of EA, Arabs pre-500 BCE.

Why would Manetho be interested in the Arabs or the jews for this matter?

>which is also the exclusive source for the life and history of Abraham and Moses.And you tell us what does Moses or Abraham have to do with the fact that Egyptian Arabic is a real lugha? You are not very focused our dear !am# I'm very focused here and I mar what I say in a public forum. There is no egyptian arabic, there is only Hebrew which mentions Abraham. Arabs & Muslims would not know of this fugurehead but for the Hebrew bible. Nothing to do with revelation. It also says, if there was such a thing as Egyptian Arabic - there would NOT be a total vaccuum of any such writings till 400 CE.More gobbeldygook# I admire your counter proof! Lol.

Let me repeat it: more gobbledygook

>Roecket science!I will leave this to the readers to judge you# I concur. Let anyone put proof on the table to align with anything you said!

Now I'm going to be blunt: what does all of this drivel have to do with EA and is it a lugha or a lahja?

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