EGYPT WAS NOT ARAB.

Submitted by IamJoseoh (Australia), May 4, 2010 at 22:46

>None of your examples give any evidence whatsover that the Arab race existed pre-500 BCE - the names you quote in your examples are not of ARABS,

Hello: They were Assyrians

# They were not Arabs.

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>the reason we see no evdences of any transit imprints of an Arab king, nation, city, monument or anything seen in all other race's histories.

you need to read Hoyland's book about EXTANT historical evidence we have about the Arabs from the bronze age to the coming of islam and there is plenty of it

# There is no proof of any such claims - the reason all your arguements have been negated here.

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Hello: We have inscriptions in Arabic from al-Faw 300BCE!! Go and check them

# No you don't. There was no arabic at that time, the reason you don't have Arabic books pre-400 CE.

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>There is no such thing Egyptian Arabic -

Hello: there was no EA before 642CE because this is when the Arabs invaded Egypt and only fools would deny that there is such thing as EA

# There is no Arabic writings - that is why you are clinging to another source to prove your case. The fundamental factor is that we have Hebrew at that time - and no Arabic writings. Guess why!

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>The Jews, kurds and Coptics pre-date the Arab race; so does Greece and Persia. But we don't see a total vaccuum of their history as we do of the Arab race pre-500BCE.

OK what does this have to do with EA being a lugha or a lahja?

# A lot. We have a Coptic language from that time - but no Arabic. EA is a desperate deflection to distort and defkect the vacuum - it cannot have any connection with Arabic which never existed in this time. Ancient Egypt was not Arab - it was stolen by the Arabs in the 6th C - same with Jerusalem and Hebron in Palestine! Why mention EA when you cannot prove Arabic?

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