Our dear iam is pontificating about not just one language but several languages that he are clueless about

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 1, 2010 at 07:31

I wrote

>It seems that our dear iam seems to be changing his mind as we goI wrote:>Hello: Are you also aware that in some Arabic language dialects ani also means I !!! Oh let me guess: they stole it too right?And this is his reply

And this was his strange answer

>Yes, I know that ana and ani, the male/female gender applies here,

Wrong. ana is both masculine and feminine so if you our dear iam is a man you would say: ana ghalabawi kabeer and if you are a she iam then it would be: ana ghalabawiya kabeera

>I have not changed my mind in any way whatsoever. I said that Ani and Ana is 'I' and in some cases male/female gender can impact.

Your English is poor. Oh let me guess; PC English! How pathetic! the word I or ana in Arabic has no gender! Stop debating a languge that you cannot speak read or write! ...

And did you understand a single word of what I wrote? Let me guess; you did not right?

>But ANO is different and represents ancient Egyptian,

Hello: The word I in Egyptian is Anok or Ang and not your bogus Ano!

>its first recorded example being the Hebrew bible.

Hello: why would your Hebrew Allah use an Egyptian word in a Hebrew text? Any guesses? Surpise me with one

> Further, I said that and staill maintain, there was no Arabic writings before 400 CE

Hypocrite

>but there was Hebrew and Aramaic.

So?and there was no English either

>You then argued about EA [Egyptian Arabic] being a proof of Arabic -

Hello: EA is not a proof of Arabic it is a fact that only fools can deny

>which I rejected:

Who cares if you reject it what ever the it is?

>there are no imprints of this from Ancient Egypt to Arabic from 4000 years ago to 400 CE [which is a period of 2,600 years].

gobbledygook

>The Arabic came from an admix of many ancient languages,

And so is Hebrew and so is all other languages so what is your point? Oh I forgot Hebrew dropped from the sky right?

>including the Latin [B is used for AVraham], which occured well after the 3rd Century - which is relatively recent.

So?

>The use of EA is itself an admission by default that Arabic is not an original independent language, claiming another, ancient one as its predessor. Egypt was not Arab - it only became called as such after Islam emerged, and when the Greeks called this new religion as Arab.

More gobbledygook

> Arab and Arabian are not the same -

Hello: Dictionary check!

>the latter predates Arab by 1000's of years - unlike the Hebrew and Aramaic. This also says that Arab Muslims are engaged in negating all ancient races in Arabia, accusing them of being aliens, that they never possessed a homeland in Arabia, such as the Jews, the Coptics and the Kurds who predate both Islam and the Arab race per se.

More gobbledygook

>If you were from pakistan I would have said to you to stick to Urdu!!FYI, the Urdu does not come from Arabic, as is mistakenly assumed in India. It comes from the Hebrew: the Hebrew predates the Arabic, and the Jews landed in India well before Islam emerged. If one checks the writings of Urdu, they will see it is 99% the same as the Hebrew, in style, grammar and ancient word meanings. E.g. ADAM [Hebrew] is ADMI [Urdu]; YED [Hebrew] is YAD [Urdu]; etc.

You did not get it did you? ...

>and that ani is also I in Arabic.

You changed your mind did you?

>No. The variance of ANI/ANA does not signify Arabic is EA because the similarity is not backed by any transit imprints. Arabic is new; Egyptian and Hebrew are ancient.

I will leave this to the readers to judge you and judge your dogmatic and poor education

> But the relavent factor is ANO does not apply as Arabic. While both Hebrew and Arabic have a similar word to the ancient Egyptian -

Arabic, Hebrew and Syriac have nothing in common with the language of Egypt get over it!

And did you ever take a class in Linguistics? Let me guess you did not right?

...

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