NO EVDENCE MEANS ITS A FICTION.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), Apr 20, 2010 at 21:19

Our dear Iam who has no clue what is really EA or no clue if it is a language or a dialect and who told us that there were really no Arabs or Arabic language before 400CE then when he was reminded about Herodotus' Arabs he changed his bogus claim to 500BCE! Oh the Arabs of the Periplus? God forbid he has no clue what is really the Periplus! And when he was provided with evidence that we have Arabic language inscriptions in let us say Qaryat al-Faw dated to 300BCE he just avoided dealing with this fact

I call this dishonesty

# I call it historically evidenced facts which you are unable to negate. None of your examples give any evidence whatsover that the Arab race existed pre-500 BCE - the names you quote in your examples are not of ARABS, the reason we see no evdences of any transit imprints of an Arab king, nation, city, monument or anything seen in all other race's histories. You have also misquoted the Hebrew bible by changing ARABIAN to ARAB. You have provided no counter evidence that Arabic writings came around 400 CE. There is no such thing Egyptian Arabic - its just a means tio manipulate history because there is no evidences of your claims, even proven by your own admission Islamic Arabs invaded Egypt in the 6th C - namely it is stolen from the pre-Arab Coptics who are totally persecuted today - while questioning the historical and factual rights of the Jews.

The Jews, kurds and Coptics pre-date the Arab race; so does Greece and Persia. But we don't see a total vaccuum of their history as we do of the Arab race pre-500BCE.

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