DENIALS WITH NO ADMISSION OF THE FACTS.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 8, 2010 at 22:48

Our dear iam ... reads here in this blog about Egyptian Arabic (EA) and is it a real lugha (language) or a dialect (lahja) and then our dear iam spews his little diatribes about his ugly term the "Arab race" and that there no Arabs or is it Arabic or is it Arabs and Arabic before 400CE or is it 300CE or is it 500BCE and only allahu a3lam but what does this have to do with EA he has no clue

# There is no confusion, as inferred. My position is very clear and precise: the Arabic writings emerged around 400 CE and the Arab race as an identifiable group emerged around 500 BCE.

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So this is for the readers

1. The language of Egypt was called by the Egyptians metremnkemi (Sahidic) and Egyptians called themselves; 'Enremnkemi and called their country KMT or Kemi

# No Arab or Arabic therein.

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2. Their is no extant literary evidence in Arabic or in Egyptian or in Greek for the existence of Arabs in Egypt before 642CE

# Correct.

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although we are told

# Who is told - and by whom?

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in the Islamic Historical Tradition that 3Amr ibn al-3As traded in Alexandria before 642CE but this is most likely no more than an anachronistic qissa

# Whatever it is - it is a fiction. Tradition cannot apply here as there is also the traditions that Abraham was a Muslim and the Jewish temple is a myth. The facts say otherwise.

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3. The language of Egypt was written in several "alphabets" over a period of 3000 years and they are heiroglyphics, Hieratic, Demotic and the last one is the so called Coptic script

# Correct. But there was no Arabic writings at this time, but there was Hebrew. Of note is the latter does not have to be reduced to hybrids such as EA - while the Arab Muslims, who have never been in dispersal, see fit to adopt such desperate manipulations to cover up the truth.

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4. The pristine texts in Demotic were indeed the old language

# There was no pristine Arabic here.

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5. Coptic texts have 20% Greek loan words

# The Greeks invaded Egypt - so this is normal osmosis.

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6. A Copt would not be able to read Demotic texts

# There was no Arabic writings at this time

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7. The word Masr is the name of Egypt in Quranic Arabic and masri is an Egyptian

# No sir. The Arabs and Arabic did not yet exist in ancient Egyptian times. Any similarities are from the reverse mode.

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8. The words bilad al-Qibt (the country of the Copts) and al-Aqbat or the Copts and lughat al-aqbat or the language of the Copts are all post 642CE and the construct QBT is the Arabized Greek Aegyptios

# No sir. Post 642 being Arab does not impact here: there is no dispute of the 642 date.

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9. Egyptian Arabic is the language that was created starting in 642CE by the people of Egypt and it is Arabic/ Egyptian (the language of Egypt that is) and it is written in Arabic alphabets and it is really a language

# Post 642 CE osmosis of language is not in dispute here. English also has Greek words - but no english exists pre-Greek.

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10. Many historians believe that the invaders seem to always adopt the language of the civilization they invade and in the case of Egypt it seems that indeed Egyptians invented their own version of Arabic and I think it confirms the old saying: Old civilizations are not conjured away and what looks obvious is not really that obvious

# This can only apply post-500 BCE. There were no Arab groups before this time.

I would like to see you either clearly admit or dispute that Arabic writings emerged around 400 CE and the Arab race emerged around 500 BCE. Hybrids like EA or a few decades apart from those dates - does not impact here but only affirm my premise.

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