BANKRUPTCY OF PROOF IS NOW BLATANT.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 4, 2010 at 22:35

>But ANO is different and represents ancient Egyptian,

Hello: The word I in Egyptian is Anok or Ang and not your bogus Ano! Get over it and do me a favor and get your money back from your madrassa

>It is also ANO.

No it is not. It is anok or ang

>This is the prefix for ANOK.

Really? Prefix? Do you really know what is a prefix? Or in this case a prefix in Egyptian? let me guess you have no clue right? why the delusions?

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# I'll say it again: the Hebrew bible is the first record of ancient Egypt, which makes it the most dependable source in this regard. Islam and the Arab race was not around at this time. We know for a fact that ANO is not Hebrew but a different language, and its reference in the 10 Commandments is the pointed response to the Pharoah who claimed to be divine, but who spoke no Hebrew. Does it take rocket science to see that the Arabs and Islam have no impact here, and that it is otherwise an anomaly that the first two words in the 10 C's is not in Hebrew, and addressed to the Hebrews who came out of slavery - and that these two non-Hebrew words ['ANO CHI"] is contexted precisely in the command not to accept any human as divine? The arabs and Islam have no say here.

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>And CHI is AM.

OK here is the book about the Egyptian language grammar and this case the Sahidic dialect (the dialect of the pharaohs) and it is 'Layton 2000" so where would I find in Layton that Ano means I and chi means am? you will not find it and shame on you

And oh ano chi must be arabic ana hay!

# Arabic writings did not exist till 400 CE. Check mate. The Hebrew existed alongside the Egyptian - the Hebrews were in direct contact with ancient Egyptians and spoke their language. Check mate.

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>The Hebrew bible marks the first reference to ancient Egypt, detailing a host of stats not seen before, from location, kings, diets, wars, towns, distances from other places and correct datings.

Really? and it also tells us about the story of the Exodus that never happened right? so much for the history of Egypt

Shame on you for uttering this nonsense

# It did happen. The Israelites did return to Canaan - they did rule that land till 70 CE - they did establish a Temple in Jerusalem - there is an ancient Egyptian stelle which records a war with Israel over 3000 years ago. Those are facts, not an opinion. Check mate.

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But again you sound like Muslims when they tell us the Qur'an is a book of history and science and medicine and it is no more than Arabian ignorance

# There is no equivalence of these two writings. One is old - the other is new and writing about times when it never existed.

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>The Arabic giave us NOTHING about Egypt. This is a fact, not my opinion.

Hello: the Arabs were no more than imperialists!

That factor is irrelevant here. They did not exist at this time - we have no Arabic writings pre-400 CE.

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Hello: why would your Hebrew Allah use an Egyptian word in a Hebrew text? Any guesses? Surpise me with one

# Surprise, surprise: the Hebrews knew Egyptian - but the Egyptians knew not Hebrew. Thus two pointed words are in Egyptian - they apply to Egypt.

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># What are you talking about - gibberish? There is no Hebrew allah -

You did not get it did you? You sound like like Muslims and your arguments could have been written by a Muslim where you would substitute the word Arab for jew and the word Qur'an for Bible

> that is a newIslamic term from the 6th C.

No it is not. It is loan word from Syriac Alaha

# Its not an Arabic term. It was improved when Islam came!

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>The Hebrew does not use that term for describing Egypt.

Gobbeldygook

But here is your bonus for today: when I told you that some of the Quranic material pre-dates Muhammad you did not get it that this really means that we can detach Muhammad from the Qur'an and we can detach Islam from the Hijaz but again you are a careless reader.

You are careless: the Quran also mentions Moses - does it mean it is a revelation? Check mate.

It is clear we have seen no proof of Arabs pre-500 BCE - and no Arabic writings pre-400 CE. The 328 C reference has no impact. The singular and sparce Syrian, EA and Greek references also have no impact - they do not mention anything about Arabs. And we have no transit imprints common to all races, nationalities and writings showing a development stage.

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