RE DISHONESTY.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), Apr 22, 2010 at 21:17

Our dear Iam who has no clue what is really EA or no clue if it is a language or a dialect and who told us that there were really no Arabs or Arabic language before 400CE then when he was reminded about Herodotus' Arabs he changed his bogus claim to 500BCE! Oh the Arabs of the Periplus? God forbid he has no clue what is really the Periplus! And when he was provided with evidence that we have Arabic language inscriptions in let us say Qaryat al-Faw dated to 300BCE he just avoided dealing with this fact

I call this dishonesty.

# Check the posts again before using words such dishonesty. I said there is no Arabic writings pre-400 CE, and no ARAB race pre-500 BCE. I stand by this - your links and writers gave no proof whatsoever of Arabs in 700 or 900 BCE; they make subjective input here, and the facts prove them wrong.

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