ARAB IS NEW; ARABIAN IS OLD.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 13, 2010 at 23:12

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 13, 2010 at 07:12

Our dear iam who is mixing EA with the Arabs and their appearance in the literary sources (which is dated as 900BCE) go figure.

# The reverse applies. I have been denying the claim Arabic and Egyptian Arabic are derivitives. You have been using the EA claim to prove Arabic writings pre-400 CE. Egypt was not Arab or Arabic.

--------------------------------

He also has no clue about the language of the Arabs and its evolution and that we have extant literary sources in Arabic as early as 100-300BCE and what does this have to do with EA? go figure. and he does not realize that EA is a real language and Egyptians speak it and live it and love it

# The Arabs also love Jerusalem - it appears even more than Mecca. It does not mean Jerusalem is Arab - its a Hebrew city established by the Jews - invaded and robbed by the Arabs. If Arabs in Egypt speak and love Egypt - it does not mean Egypt was Arab, or that the Pyramids have anything to do with Arabs or Islam. Pakistan is also not Islamic - it is Indian land robbed by Muslims via corrupt deals between Briton and ficticious Regimes they established in Arabia.

----------------------------------------

But the most amusing thing is he is debating the history of the Arabic language when he does not know any Arabic

# Are you a prophet, able to see what others cannot? I know loads of Arabic.

---------------------------------

and cannot read the primary sources in their original language and he cannot a student of history either ,,, Then he tells us that and Arab and Arabian are different oh there will be more about this little gem so stay tuned

# I don't need to know the primacy sources of original langiages. I only need to see your proof backing it up.

--------------------------------

>You are saying that ancient Egyptian arabic,

What on earth is ancient Egyptian Arabic? What are you talking about? You did not understand a word did you right?

For the readers check all my posts I never wrote anything about ancient EA not a single word because there is no such thing. There is EA that is alive and a great language

# You mentioned EA - which one must assume is a development of ancient Egyptian and an evolving language via osmosis, which you call Egyptian Arabic. You then tried to connect this bogus phenomenon with today's Arabic writings. I say, there are no imprints here, and Arabic is merely an admix of various languages, including Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, Latin, etc - it's written form emerging only recently, around 400 CE. This makes the Arabic writings one of the last ones in Arabia - its new - unlike the Hebrew.

-----------------------------------------------------

>which you call EA,

Hello: EA is the language spoken by the people of Egypt now and it started following the Arab invasion of Egypt in 642CE! How many times I have to tell you that?

# This is what I said. You are connecting this as a proof the Arab race existed pre-500 BCE, and that Arabic writings are proven before 400 CE.

-----------------------------------------------------------

Hypocrite and here is another line from 'En 'Avdot's inscription dated 88CE-150CE (see Versteegh)

fa yaf' alu la fidan wa la atara

Anyone who knows Arabic can read the above as

for (he) works without reward or favor (see Belamy who reads the "he" as Obdos)

# You are quoting a reference which is not Arabic or Arab and have not attached any datings to it.

--------------------------------------

So do you think that Versteegh and Belamy made up this inscription?

Now go and tell them at Hebrew University that this is all made up and they will laugh at you

# There is no inclsuion of the wird ARAB found anywhere pre-500 BCE. The references you quote are not pre-500 BCE.

--------------------------------------

>there is no Arabs before 500 BCE

Hypocrite

But wait what language did they speak between your bogus 500BCE and your 400CE? Martian? Sobhanallah

# Yes, that's a fair question. Usually, the people spoke Aramaic - a generic street language spoken by all people in Arabia. Later, they spoke Greek as the first language. All ancient countries in Arabia spoke their own mother tongue and also some languages of their neighbouring states. The excetion here was Hebrew - this was not a generic language but exclusive to the Hebrews. What is a fact is there was no Arabic writings before 400 CE and no ARAB race before 2,500 years.

The first alphabetical book is the Hebrew bible, and it mentions Jerusalem 100's of times, and gives a historical record of a host of nations, including their datings, their kings, wars, relics, diets, cultures, beliefs - in an exclusive mode. We have no other writings aside from the Hebrew, which desribes Abraham and his life, and the first written record of Egypt [aside from stone inscriptions] is the Hebrew. The Hebrew makes no mention of Arab or Arabic - and there are no such imprints from any other sources. We know also that at no time did the pre-Islamic Arabs follow the beliefs of Abraham or Moses, and the Quran's assertion of these figureheads are retrospective and post-400 CE.

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".