Gem time and our dear Joseph

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Apr 12, 2010 at 19:07

Our dear iamjospeh tells us that there really were no Arabs or Arabic language before 400CE and when he was reminded of Herodotus' Arabs he changed it to 500BCE! What a hypocrite and when he was told that you can also find "Arabs" in the Periplus he tells that he could not find anything about the Arabs in the Periplus

For the readers; just google "Periplus" and you judge for yoursleves

>where is yours – even an insignificant shred of evidence will suffice?

You need to check Jan Resto's book "The Arabs in antiquity, their history from the assyrians to the Umayyads" where Resto tells us that the first documented mention of "The Arabs" is from 900BCE

Now you either put up or and you must pardon me shut up!

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