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More delusionsReader comment on item: "An Arabist's Guide to Egyptian Colloquial" Now Online Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 5, 2010 at 06:47 For the readers read and laugh. To remind you this thread is about Egyptian Arabic (EA) and is it a language or an Arabic dialect. I happen to believe that it is a language and the starting point of it was 642CE when the Arabs invaded Egypt and this is what I wrote >No this is not a debate this is "I dhimmi no more telling you so" ... and it is about EA or did you forget? Now our dear iam has no clue what is really EA and why is it a language and not a dialect . He does not know any Arabic or EA and his Egyptian history book is the Bible! He cannot tell the difference between the Egyptian language and EA. Then he is preoccupied with the "Arab race" and in the process he has no clue about what the history of the Arabs and their language are all about Then he tells us that there was no "Arabs or is it Arabic and only allahu a3lam before 400CE and notice that he is mixing Arabs, Arabic, alphabet, extant evidence all in one. Then when he was reminded of the Arabs of Herodotus and the Arabs of the periplus he changed his mind and told us that the "Arab race" existed from 500BCE in other words they just dropped from the sky and he our dear iam did agree with Herodotus. Sohanallah Oh the Periplus? He had no clue what is really the Periplus and then when he checked in wikipedia he came back with the little gem that I some how told him that the authors of the Periplus were belonging to the "Arab race". Then when he was provided with literary sources by Assyrians and from his Bible to the existence of the Arabs as early as 900BCE. He refused (as if anyone cares) such sources but notice that he has no difficulty accepting the Arabs of Herodotus go figure. I told him to go and write a book and tell the world that Resto and Hoyland and Versteegh are all wrong and that there was no "Arab race" before 500BCE and I promised him that he will be making a fool of himself. I even suggested that on his next visit to Israel that he should stop at the Dept of Arabic and islamic studies to tell them about his little gems and I assured him that they will laugh at him Oh the Arabic language: This is where it gets bizarre. Now here is our dear iam who cannot read speak or write Arabic and has no clue about how to read historical literary sources but that does not stop him from pontificating about such topic. Then he tells us that there really is no Arabic language or is it texts or is it race before 400CE. And when he was reminded that texts can be oral or they can be in written form and that we indeed have evidence from the Qur'anic text that some of such texts can pre-date the Qur'an by hundrerds of years, and that the Arabs used other alphabtes for their texts as in using Syriac or Garshouni Arabic and that written literary sources can be lost or destroyed or they can be stored some place waiting to be discovered as in the case of the Nag Hammadi library and the Qumran library and good historians are very aware of the so called "argument from silence" in other words if he would have said there is no EXTANT literary sources prior to a certain date he would be correct. And indeed the earliest Arabic language inscription (notice that epigraphy and coins as literary sources survive more than papyri) is from Qaryat al-Faw and is dated to 100-300BCE and there is a two lines in Arabic language inscription from 3ayn Abdot in Israel and dated between 87-150CE he went back and told me that "there is no Arabic before 400CE" and when he was reminded about an Arabic language epigraphy from 328CE he changed his mind and told me that there was no Arabic before 300CE and when I reminded him why did he change his mind? He told me 300 is close to 400 and what a hypocrite and he reminds me of Muslims that tell us ya3ni bel taqreeb or it is close enough I even suggested to him that he should write a book to tell the world about his cockamamie theories that there no Arabs or is it "Arab race" before 500BCE and no Arabic language before 300 or is it 400CE (it just makes you wonder how can you have Arabs that did not speak Arabic may be they spoke Martian who knows) Now yes the Arabic language became a fully fledged language by the 3rd century of Islam through the works of the Muslim masorites and the great grammarian Sibawayhe and the great Ishaq ibn Hunein and the final step was Ibn Manzur great dictionary of the Arabic language Lisan al-3Arab ># Yes, it was about EA, So what does this have to do with your bogus claims so far? >and I responded that the EA is bogus Only fools would utter this nonsense >and has no relation to Arabic writings. Hello: EA is written in Arabic alphabet! What an ignorant man >How can you claim EA when Arabic writings emerged only in 400 CE? Hello: I never said that as the Arabs invaded Egypt in 642CE. ... >That Arabic looks like an ancient writings only proves it was copied from an admix and first appeared in 400 CE. Then write a book and prove it or shut up > We have no Arabic writings which tell us about Arabs or anything connected to Arabs. It is OK if you dislike Islam but to hate people is evil do you get it? Now do me a favor and go and read a real book of history Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. 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