ARAB IS NEW; ARABIAN IS OLD.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 13, 2010 at 22:44

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 13, 2010 at 07:46

I cannot help it but this must be the mother of all gems

Our dear iam you told us that the Greeks invaded Arabia right our dear iam? But you still did not tell us the readers:

1. When did the Greeks invade Arabia?

And this is his answer

># The Greeks invaded the Persian empire in 500 bce in a war which last about 50 years. This gave the Greeks their foothold in Arabia.

Which part of Arabia? let me guess: you have no clue right?

2. Why did the Greeks invade Arabia?

># That is far removed from the context of this discussion and you have not indicated the purpose of the question. More applicable is that the Greeks were seen as feigner invaders, and groups started to offer protection of the peoples' assets - eventually, these groups became know as Arabs, a term coined by the Greeks, but which was not representative of all Arabians. E.g. the Egyptians were not Arab, nor were the Jews - the term Arab Jews only came when Jews exiled in later Arab controlled lands learnt arabic.

I read this as you have no answer right?

3. Which part of Arabia was invaded by the Greeks

Hints

1. Egypt ain't Arabia

2. No Musa wa Ibrahim please

3. Stay focused

And this is his answer

># Almost all parts of Arabia

Really? Could you provide us with references that attest to the fact that the Greeks invaded Arabia all of it 500BCE and you know how to google so it is your chance to shine our dear iam and we readers can watch you maknig a fool of yourself again

>and even onto India,

Oh and al-hind too? wa minkum nastafeed

> including Egypt -

The Greeks invaded Egypt 500BCE really?

>which was Arabian but not Arab at this time.

Oh so what is an Arab and what is an Arabian? Hint: dictionary

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You asked 3 deflectiong questions. I gave you the approx. known date when Greece invaded Arabia. You have not denied this, but went on to ask a notoriously unrealistic and subjective question: 'WHY' DID THEY INVADE ARABIA? I correctly responded and do so again, that this is a subjective question and one can subject it to anything one likes, as well as numerous issues can apply - like the need to conquer unknown lands - or to defend against this from Persia, which had the same notion of conquering lands. Maybe you can instead tell us 'WHY' the Muslims invaded Jerusalem and dump a Mosque there? But this would be a deflecting issue.

Then you asked me 'WHAT PART OF ARABIA?'. This has no bearing again when ARABS emerged. The Greek wars were with the Persians, an empire which began around 700 BCE and who predate the Arab race - but not the Hebrew race. The Greek wars with the Nabateans, for example, are post-invasion. Egypt was conquered by the Greeks - but Egypt was not Arab.

The term Arab appeared only when these gangs took over the Coptics and the Greeks for the first time called them ARABS, a term generic for an ethnic race or group, which was aligned with Arabia and all Arabian groups - many who predate the Arabs, such as the Jews, the Copts, the Kurds, the Assyrians, the Lebanese, the Egyptians, the Canaanites, the Moabites, the Midianites, etc - all of these are varied and predating of the ARAB race. This is the reason you cannot produce a single reference to ARAB pre-500 BCE; it never existed. What you have been doing here is - manipulating words like Arvi, which appears once or twice in Hebrew writings - and fixing this as your proof of ARAB. A word containing the 'V' cannot apply to Arabs - they never possessed this alphabet. Nor will we find any imprints between Arvi and Arab.

Guess why can't you show us the word ARAB pre-500 BCE - or any Arabic writings re-400 CE?

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