THESE REFERENCES HAVE NO RELATION TO ARABS.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), Apr 19, 2010 at 02:15

Well let us see and this is from Hoyland's "Arabia and the arabs from the bronze age to the coming of islam":

"Yet through Arabia was a country of diverse peoples and traditions it is the Arabs whom we hear of most and who rise to increasing prominence in the course of Arabian history. They are first mentioned in Biblical and Assyrian texts of the ninth century to the 5th century BC where they appear as nomadic pasroralists inhabiting the Syrian desert. The fact that the name begins to be used by both cultures during the same period suggest that 'Arab' was how these pastoralists designated themselves. What its original significance was we do not know but it came to be synonymous with desert dweller and a nomadic way of life in the texts of settled peoples."

So you tell us ya ayuha al-falyasoof al-kabeer did Hoyland make this up?

# You are highlighting the wrong statements - they become negated as you read on:

Quote: they appear as nomadic pasroralists inhabiting the Syrian desert.

This is a reference to generic nomadic peoples - not any group of ARABS! The Israelites were also nomadic pastoralist peoples – and they have written proof of their history, including cities, kings and monuments. You do not. The term 'APPEAR' is also indicative this is mere conjecture – most probably incurred by Arab propaganda.

Quote: The fact that the name begins to be used by both cultures during the same period suggest…

The term 'SUGGESTS' is hardly a means of scientific or historical proof; nor is there any equivalence here: the Syrian group is proven - the Arab one is not. How so?

And then he provides the following as references from your Bible and Assyrian texts that attest to the existence of the Arabs

1. "You waited by the roadside for lovers like an Arab in the desert' Jermiah 3.2

# No sir. You have distorted the Hebrew bible. The word used is ARABIAN - not ARAB:

"2 Lift up thine eyes unto the high hills, and see: where hast thou not been lain with? By the ways hast thou sat for them, as an Arabian in the wilderness;"

Ancient Egypt was Arabian in Arabia - it was NOT Arab and that nation has nothing in common with Arabs - by names, language or inhabitants.

2. "Babylon.... will be overthrown by god " Isaiah 13.19

So did Hoyland make this up too? And how come you did not know that?

# You got that from the Hebrew writings - nothing in it of Arabs.

And here is a sage who opined in 7th century BCE and his name was Ahiqar

'never again will the Arab pitch his tent there or the shepherds make their folds' and 'do not show to an Arab the sea or to a Sidonian the desert for their occupations are different'

So did the sage Ahiqar make this up too?

# This is has nothing to do with Arabs. It is dated 450 BCE, denoting an Egyptian ship trading with Pheonecieans with no mention of Arabs or Arabic writings: http://www.journals.uchicago.edu/doi/abs/10.1086/596622

And the Assyrian king Sargon II (721-705BCE) speaks of "The Arabs who live far away in the desert and who know neither overseers nor officials'

And did King Sargon make this up too?

# Nothiung whatsoever to do with Arabs. This refers to the Persian empire and Mesopotamia - a war whereby the Persian conquered Babylon, when the Jews were exiled there. Arab emerged after this time and there is no reference of Arabs before this time or during this time: http://www.artlex.com/ArtLex/m/mesopotamian.html

Then Hoyland wrote

"Arabs do feature in one very early south Arabian inscription most probably from the 7/6 century BCE"

# Not true. The term ARAB does NOT appear here.

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