The Islamic concept of al-jahiliyya and our dear iam and it seems that Arabic became a real language as back as 1500BCE

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 18, 2010 at 07:57

Our dear iam Muslims tell us that history can be explained through a process of historical discontinuity or al-jahiliyya wa al-islam. But this is far from the truth as nothing drops from the sky not books, not people and not ideas or religions and that history is about continuity. The Arabs and their language or even their religion did not drop from the sky and as I said to you if you would have said that there is no extant evidence to attest to the existence of a certain group or their language then you are making a good point.

Now the following is really for the readers

1. The Arabic language has a very long history behind it and historians that study the history of Arabic as a language and also study lingusitics tell us (see Garbini) that we have the following about the linguistic source of Arabic

proto-semitic-------> West Semitic-------> Central Semitic------> this splits into

A. Aramaic

B. Arabo-Canaanite and this splits into Arabic and Canannite

Now this took place in the so called linguistic Syrian area or what we call now al-hilal al-khaseeb that borders the Syria desert. Now this is what Gabrini is saying:

the arabic type of semitic language originated when groups of speakers detached themselves from the syrian area that bordered on the desert and became isolated from the innovative area. the completion of this process of bedouinisation took place at the earliest in the second half of the second millennium BCE.

This means that the Arabic language based on lingusitic analysis can be traced back to 1500BCE!!

Oh there is more

the common features shared by arabic and north west semitic must therefore represent innovations that had been introduced in the syrian area before bedouinisation took place

And this indeed makes lots of sense as Arabs now have a uniqe semitic language and they do not speak for example Aramaic now do you get it our dear iam?

Oh there is more

it appears indeed that there are no archaisms in arabic (eg: the name 3Amr is still written as the Archaic 3AMRU) that do not occur in the north west semitic languages of the second millennuim BCE

Do you know what this means our dear iam? It means that Arabic became a unique language as far back as 1500BCE!! and thru the porcess of isolation of the Arabs in the desert and away from the Syrian area Arabic became a unique language

Now you have another task: Prove that Gabrini is wrong

2. The first literary sources that tell us about the Arabs can be dated back to 900BCE and it is a fact

3. The first Arabic texts comes from Qaryat al-Faw and is dated 100BCE-300BCE and this is a fact

4. Texts can be written in foreign alphabets but the text is still an Arabic text and here is an example

ina al-ustaz iam ghalabawi kabeer

Well this is an Arabic text written in Latin alphabet but this is Arabic nontheless and this is what our dear iam cannot understand. The Arabs did that and that was a common practice back then

5. The origin of the Arabic alphabet is unkown however I believe that it must be from Syriac and the earliest Arabic text albeit defective Arabic alphabet must be the one from Om al-Jimal dated about 270CE

6. Now the text of the Qur'an that we have is supposed to have been revlealed as rasm which means that it took another 300 years and the efforts of the Muslim masorites to fix the text of the Qur'an (language, syntax, adding the missing short as well as long vowels and shadda and hamza and explaining the defective grammar that was at variance with what was regarded as classical Arabic). So this brings us to about the year 900CE

7. But this was not all Arabic was still a defective language and with the help of the great Sibawayhe (D 790CE) we are now able to understand Arabic grammar and with the great work of Hunein ibn Ishaq (Around 815CE) and his translations of the Greek learning from Greek to Syriac and then to Arabic the vocabulary of the Arabic language expanded and many words (eg: balgham, tuhal, safra) that were no more than Arabized words and these words would have had no meaning to Muhammad and his generation

8. The last step in the evolution of the Arabic language was the great Arabic language dictionary by ibn Mnazur: Lian al-3Arab in the year 600AH (around 1300CE) but one can very much argue that this dictionary is really not of classical Arabic but of Middle Arabic as by then the languages of the conquered people affected the Arabic language

9. And this is how EA came about it was the language of the Arabs that became Egyptian and not the other way around as it is all boaut continuity and not discontinuity

So it took about 3000 years for us to have the Arabic language we have today

>You have not been able to produce a single referece to the term 'ARAB' pre-500 BCE.

Oh may be you can write a book and tell the whole world that all the literary sources that tell us about the Arabs as early as 900BCE are all fake and made up to annoy people like yo

>ARVI is not Arab.

I will leave this remark to the readers to judge you

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