ALL YOUR SUBMISSIONS ARE USELESS.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 12, 2010 at 23:17

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 12, 2010 at 06:55

Our dear iam you told us that the Greeks invaded Arabia right our dear iam? But you still did not tell us the readers:

1. When did the Greeks invade Arabia?

# The Greeks invaded the Persian empire in 500 bce in a war which last about 50 years. This gave the Greeks their foothold in Arabia.

2. Why did the Greeks invade Arabia?

This is our dear iam's answer

># That is far removed from the context of this discussion and you have not indicated the purpose of the question. More applicable is that the Greeks were seen as feigner invaders, and groups started to offer protection of the peoples' assets - eventually, these groups became know as Arabs, a term coined by the Greeks, but which was not representative of all Arabians. E.g. the Egyptians were not Arab, nor were the Jews - the term Arab Jews only came when Jews exiled in later Arab controlled lands learnt arabic.

I read this as you have no answer and needs to get a life

3. Which part of Arabia was invaded by the Greeks

Hints

1. Egypt ain't Arabia

2. No Musa wa Ibrahim please

3. Stay focused

I will be waiting for your answers with great anticipiation

># Almost all parts of Arabia and even onto India, including Egypt - which was Arabian but not Arab at this time.

Shame on you for uttering this nonsense

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Your quetions of WHY Greek invaded Arabia is nonesensical: better, why did Islam invade Jerusalem and dump a Mosque there - then shamelessly deny there was a Temple in Jerusalem?

Your question is a deflection and is not related to the vacuum of any proof of pre-500 BCE Arabs. Herodotus is post-500 BCE.

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