Gem time

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 7, 2010 at 18:07

The more I read you post the more i realize ...

This is what I wrote

D. And then Coptic was introduced in the late 3rd century CE so this would mean in your bizarre world that the Copts did not exist in Egypt from time immemorial in Egypt and as a matter of fact a Copt would not be able to read his own language in one of the older alphabets now do you get it?

># No, your conclusion is way out.

Ignorant

>There was a Coptic language,

Coptic is a scirpt and Egyptian is the langauge

>even when there was no Coptic alphabetical writings.

gobbledygook

>The Coptic language is varied from Arabic,

Really? Masha'allah

>is older than the Arabic, and this people were in Egypt before the Arab race emerged - their land and rights were stolen, as was the case with Palestine. Your own links affirm this.

What does Palestine have to do with Coptic?

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".