THE POINT!

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), Apr 10, 2010 at 20:11

My point here is, the Arab race is post-500 BCE. Re. Where did they come from is hardly the issue; the issue is of an identfiable group, not that Arabs are generic to the regions. There are ancient nations and relatively new nations. There was no Jewish/Hebrew nation or race pre-4000 years ago; there was no Arab nation/race pre-2500 years ago. The Jewish nation/race is far older than the Arab one, as are a host of others in this region. This is evidenced by the vaccuum of Arabs pre-500 BCE; no ancient Hebrew/Monotheist belief of Arabs till Islam emerged; no evidence Moses was a Muslim by 'belief' [the reverse applies here]. In modern history, all the states created by Briton and Europe are based on fiction, aside from the reality of oil reserves and its corruption. Iraq is made as Arab, when Babylon was not Arab - so go figure. The Arabs learnt of Abraham, Moses and Monotheism not from any Mohammed but from Jews, a 1000 years before Islam emerged - no other way could they have known of Abraham and Moses but for the Hebrew bible [first translated after Greece invaded Arabia], and by being with Jews after the Babylonian exile. Just as the Muslim Arabs dumped a Mosque on the known Jewish sites - the pre-Islamic Arabs first emerged as gangs who offered protection against foreign [Greek] invaders. They started this protection facility in Egypt, then took over the Coptics. It is proven by Islamic doctrines to TAKE OVER other peoples' lands all over the globe. E.g. India and Palestine. The Muslims are today spreading a false history and barring any real history in its states. And not a single brave, honest Muslim questions it: what does that say? I am of course open to any proof which can negate my statements.

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