ARAB & ARABIAN ARE NOT EQUAL.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 12, 2010 at 22:10

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), May 12, 2010 at 06:52

Oh and this is what it says in Jeremiah 25:24 (See New Living translation)

I went to the kings of Arabia the kings of the nomadic tribes of the desert

Do you know what this means? Let me help you

1. It means that there were Arabs before your bogus 500BCE

2. It means that the Arabs had kings

3. The source here is no other than the Bible

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No sir. ARAB is not seen in the Hebrew texts, and this is not a typo. Egypt was in Arabia and thus Arabian - you will find no mispell there. The Arabs invaded Egypt in the 7th centuary. They also invaded Palestine and dumped a Mosque in Jerusalem - and Jerusalem existed 1500 years before the Arab race existed . Kind David, a Israelite King, is proven as a historical figure by coins, relics and monuments - where is your Arab equivalence? A 3,3000 year ancient Egypt stele mentions Israel - why not Arab? Nations such as Moabites, Medianites, Persians, Hitites, Egyptians - all mentioned in the Hebrew writings - were in Arabia before the Arab race emerged.

Please admit you have no proof of the term ARAB re-500 BCE?

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