Incorrect deflection.

Submitted by IamJoseph (Australia), May 14, 2010 at 22:24

For the readers read and laugh

This is what our dear iam wrote

>Egypt was in Arabia and thus Arab

I said the reverse: Egypt is in Arabia and was NOT Arab.

I also said that Egypt was invaded by Arabs, its land and peoples robbed and persecuted - as is the case wherever the Arabs throd. The pre-Islamic Arabs were in the front rows destroying the Jewish temple, as paid mercenaries of Rome, and their hatred for Jews was pre-Islamic and pre-Quran. The Arabs were Pagan and thus not targeted by Rome's heresy decree.

The Arab race is the only one in Arabia which does not possess historical writings, kings, citites, relics, monuments or mention from other surces pre-500 BCE, and you are clinging to words mentioned psarsely, with no connectivity imprints, which are similar sounding but dfferent from the word ARAB, to fill the big vacuum. Jews predate the Arab race by 1,500 years, and the Arabic writings by 2,600 years - with a thread of imprints in history without pause or confusion. This is true despite that the Jews were in constant dispersal, unlike the Arab race which emerged 500 BCE.

You have not been able to produce a single referece to the term 'ARAB' pre-500 BCE. ARVI is not Arab.

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