For our dear Ridwan and: Was Muhammad illiterate?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Aug 16, 2007 at 06:41

The answer is we just do not know. If the word iqra' in Qur'an 96 really means read then he can read and that does not make him illiterate. Allah could have said: Qul instead you would have a case that may be he was uneducated. So your claim here is bogus

But most significant is the Quranic 7:157-158 where it says:

al-rasul al-nabi al-ummi

The word rasul here means the prophet but the word nabi here means a Biblical prophet (nabi is a loan word from Hebrew) and word ummi here must be read as gentile or non-Jewish. It just does not make any sense to call Muhammad "The Prophet, the prophet the uneducated."

And I would read it as:

"the propeht (that belongs to) the (Biblical) prophets, the gentile."

So much for Muhammad being uneducated.

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