Abul Qasim mentioned in the Bible! Alhamdullilah!

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 20, 2014 at 17:36

Our dear Advent who lives in Malasyia which would be a basket case if there were no hard working Chinese and Indians right Mr Wannabe Arab?

Isaiah 42:1 The prophet that will preach One God to non-Israelites

Here we go again: So let me see are you quoting the Bible to prove your point? But you see our dear Advent the wannabe Arab why are you quoting a corrupted book to prove a point? So you have one of two choices are you saying that the Bible is not a corrupted book and this is why you are quoting it? But in this case I will have to inform your Wahhabi masters that you are saying that the Bible is not a corrupted book

But here is your big time disaster; If you believe that the Bible is a corrupted book as your so called Allah claims then you cannot quote a corrupted book to prove a point because after all garbage in is garbage out

So is the Bible corrupted or not you tell us!

But I'm going to tell you what i told you before as you shall see below

Christians believe that Jesus is also Holy Spirit to begin with.

Quoting a corrupted book again to prove a point so is the Bible a corrupted book or not Mr Einstein you tell me?

And are you also aware that your Allah in Q2:213 asks for a permission from himself which is bizarre and stupid

But if we read Isaiah 42:1. God said "I have put my spirit UPON/AGAINST/OVER him (the sentence does not translate as I have put my spirit WITHIN/BORN WITH him ): he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.."

So is the Bible a corrupted book or not?

Which befits prophet Muhammad (pbuh) as after receiving divine guidance of Holy Spirit ; he himself spread the religion of One God to gentiles (other than Children of Israel). Jews have already worship One God and righteous Jews anticipated the coming of Holy One prophesied in Isaiah 42.

Again is the Bible a corrupted book or not you tell me

Thus it is not Jesus (pbuh) as he did not preached to Gentiles and as mentioned in Isaiah 42:1 , if God placed Holy Spirit upon His servant . Would not this simply mean that Jesus needed to exist without Holy Spirit first and God later lets the Holy Spirit descend to him?

You still do not get it you cannot quote a corrupted book to prove a point so is the Bible a corrupted book or not?

And here is my previous post to you about your tablighee nonsense so read and enjoy

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Aug 18, 2013 at 08:19

Our dear Submitter who lives in Malaysia which would become a basket case if the Chinese and the Hindus and non Muslims left and he is busy not working as the Chinese do but fooling himself by pretending to know not one but several languages when he cannot even read Arabic

The question that most of us ask now, arose before during the time of Muhammad s.a.w; preaching the words of God onto Arabia. Was Muhammad mentioned?

Who gave you the impression that we kuffar care if your so called prophet is or is not mentioned in the Bible?

This was the question by inhabitants of Arabia towards Jews that embraced Islam. And if we refer to the claim by past Jewish converts, they had quote verses from Isaiah 42.In passages of Isaiah. God address His chosen servants with their names, and in the prophesied verse we see God mention clearly the prophet's name. **Some examples of God mentioning His servant by name.(My Servant Isaiah, My Servant Eliakim, David My Servant, Jacob My Servant, My Servant Israel, and so in Isaiah 42:1 , God specifically mention My Servant Ahmad

So let me see: You are quoting the Bible right? So are you saying that the Bible is not a corrupted book right? So a yes or no answer will do and if the answer is yes it is a corrupted book then this is the end of your discussion because you cannot reach conclusions based on information from a corrupted book! Do you get this much or are you another poorly educated Muslim? you tell me and if your answer is no it is not a corrupted book then I will inform the nut cases in Wahhabi land that you our dear Submitter is saying that the Bible is not a corrupted book so which one option one of option two?

But wait your Allah teslls us:

1. He is the author of the NT and OT right?

2. He also tells us that no one can change his word

3. He also tells us that we kuffar can find Muhammad's name in the books of them Joos and Nasarra Q7:157

Do you know what this means? It means that your Allah is saying that the Bible cannot be corrupted so is the Bible corrupted or not?

Why cannot Allah make up his mind you tell me

But I will give you a chance:

1. I'm sure you agree with me that your masters the Arabs tell us that your so called Rasul's name we Qutham or قثم so where can we find it the Bible? Let me help you you will not find it

2. I'm sure you are aware that your Arab masters tell us that his kunya was Abul Qasim ابو القاسم so where would we find it in the Bible? you will not find it

3. You will find the name Muhammad محمد four times in the Qur'an and it can be read as an attribute than a name so you tell us where does it say in the corrupted Bible that this Muhamad is Abul Qasim whose name is Qutham and who was born in 3Am al-Feel or 570CE and received his mab3ath in 610CE or may be 613CE and only Allahu A3lam and who immgrated from Mecca to Medina in 622CE and who died in 632CE let me help you you will not find it

4. We are also told that one of his names was Taha so where would i find it in the corrupted Bible you tell us

5. We are also told that Elyaseen is one of his names so where would we find this name in the Bible?

6. And one of his names is Ahmad right and you tell us that this is the one in Isiah right? But wait I DMN my real name is Muhammad and my friends call me Ahmad do you think that I'm the Ahamd mentioned in Isiah? what do you think? Do you see why your claims are really bogus?

7. Now here is the real disaster محمد عبد الله ورسوله and you will find it in Q33:56 or Muhammad is the servant of Allah and his messenger right? But here is the problem the word Muhammad here is an attribute and not a real name as you shall see and the disaster here is the Arabs tell us that the word means the praised one but the praised one in Arabic really means محمود or Mahmoud so congratulations our dear submitter your so called prophet's name is not really Muhammad but Mahmoud what a disaster

So who is this Muhammad Abd Allah? we have to turn to Q19:30 where it says قال اني عبد الله or Jesus is saying that he is Abd Allah and indeed in Syro-Arabic christianity Jesus was the praised one who is MUhammad (which is a Syriac word fro the praised one) and he is THE Abd Allah

What a disaster there ain't no Muhammad the PUBH and it is all about Jesus

7. Oh Ibn Ishaq's Munahemmna? It is Jesus Christ and would you like to know more?

Oh there is more so Ibn Ishaq tells us that Muhammad is really منحّمنا في اللغة السوريانية he is saying that the word Muhammad in Syriac is Munahhmana! and this is one evidence that you can find the name of Muhammad in the Syriac Bible

But wait Ibn Ishaq did not even get it as the word nahem in Syriac ܢܚܡ means to raise from the dead and as far as we know Muhammad did not "rise from the dead" and it was Jesus therefore:

Congratulations our dear submitter the lost tablighee but Ibn Ishaq's Munahhemana is really Christ who must be the Muhammada(n) or the blessed

Sorry it is your sources that are telling us that

Oh there is more Ibn Ishaq also tells us that البرقليتس , oh let me help you with this one, or the Paraclete is Muhammad in Greek

But now we have established that Jesus is really the one who "raise from the dead" therefore he is really the Muhammda(n) therefore Jesus must be the paraclete as per ibn ishaq

And you know what? this is what the Syrians tell us as in St. Ephrem who told us that Jesus is the Paraclete

Then congratulations our dear submitter but ibn Ishaq is really saying that Jesus is the Munahhemana as well as the Paralete and therofore he must be the Muhammad(n) or the blessed one

It is your islamic sources that tell us all of this and if you do not like it then destory them and good riddance

So you tell me based on your flawed logic you think that the Ahamd in the corrupted Bible is me? And why not?

In Isaiah 42:1, it is deemed not a coincidence upon seeing the writing of both אתמך (Atmc) אחמד (Ahmd). And the word before אתמך (Atmc), is עבדי (Abdi~My Servant). For indeed, it is indicating Ahmad; Abdullah (Ahmad; Servant of God).
**Not to mention אתמך (Atmc) happen to be a special term foretelling the coming of a righteous man and is used only ONCE throughout the entire Book. [could this be a copying error or an intended error?]

You have a big disaster ahead of you before you can draw your cockamamie conclusions as you can see before I finish and shame on you for not using your barin cells but stay tuned for this one as I'm not done with you

~~
The prophecy tells about Ahmad; 'Servant of God' whom will war to correct the wrongs and bringing judgement based on the law of God.

But we have established that Jesus is really the Servant of Allah as per Q19:30 right?

He will liberate act of worshiping molten images and thus Arabia (wilderness desert, villages and cities) will glorify God since then. **As can be seen today, Arabia are worshiping,praising God and singing words of God daily. Inhabitants from all around the world gather there and voice out loud their praise to God.

Gobbledygook

And we continue reading Isaiah 42:18 – 25; God remind the 'blind and deaf' about the wrath of God towards Children of Israel, whom neglect the message brought by past Servant of God.

Oh I see you are quoting a corrupted book to prove a point. Not very smart

And not to repeat; the same mistake upon the coming of the new Servant of God

You are ignorant and shame on you

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