Sohail

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Dec 22, 2006 at 23:55

5 "See, I will send you the prophet Elijah before that great and dreadful day of the LORD comes.

The above verse says that first will come the prophet Elijah then will the great and dreadful day of the Lord.

And Elijah did come. But did it really say that after Elijah comes, there will be a dreadful day right after?

As you can see the third verse says that:

:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts,

Just because God makes it with the house of Israel does not mean that he did not include others. After all, we see in the New Testament, the term 'Jew' is referred to those who accept Jesus Christ as their Savior and YHWH as their God. Another explanation would be that God made it for the Jews first and later the Gentiles. The Jews were entrusted for building the Church and the Gentiles are the branches that are grafted in.

What Iam trying to say is that God will make this New covenant with House of Israel and not the Gentiles. Also it says that God law will be with the Covenant but as we know Christianity doesn't follow Moses law because of Paul teachings.

Not necessarily. Paul says that we cannot trust our salvation on following the Law. The same commandments apply to the Christians as to the Jews minus the ceremonial laws.

Does Jesus name mean that.

Jesus means the "LORD saves". But Jesus will be called Mighty God and Prince of Peace. The Everlasting Father and the Wonderful Counselor are both in him.

No of course not beacuse it contradicts it self and I always could show you if you this say so.

Go ahead, show me how it does. Somehow I think that you will use verses that have already been explained.

God Bless and Have a Blessed Christmas

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