Servant of Christ

Submitted by Sohail (United Kingdom), Jan 23, 2007 at 06:23

We must both examine the context of the Hebrew Scriptures. The early Jewish leaders (the uncorrupt ones before the time of Jesus) believed that Isaiah 42 referred the Messiah and ONLY the Messiah in addition to Isaiah 53. Let's just simplify the debate. The Gospels, that is Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, make it very certain that Jesus was the Messiah and Son of God, who was God himself, and he died (not some other) died the Christ for our sins. The book of Acts (written by our doctor Luke) then tells us how Jesus was the Prophet foretold by Moses (though Jesus told us Moses prophesied about him yet never specified). The Gospels make it very clear that Jesus said that he was the Son of God while Jesus does not give us a definite answer otherwise.

Why Jesus does not fulfil Isaiah 53:

1. In isaiah 53 it says the following:

2 He grew up before him like a tender shoot,
and like a root out of dry ground.
He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him,
nothing in his appearance that we should desire him. 53:2

Jesus must have been ulgy !

2. In isaiah 53:

it also says the following:

And who can speak of his descendants? 53:8
he will see his offspring and prolong his days 53:10

Jesus didn't have any descendants nor did did he live a long live.

I know that Jesus was the Son of God because I know him personally and he has changed my life. His blood has renewed the fellowship with God that was possible in the days of the Garden of Eden. I know that Jesus has said 'done' in concerning whether or not I go to Heaven or not.

I am happy for you. Islam has changed my life.

Sohail

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