Nope, Isaiah is Talking About Jesus Not Muhammed

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Oct 22, 2006 at 17:41

They are two different ways we Muslims Interpret Isaiah 42, one way is that Isaiah 42:1-8 is a prophecy about the coming of Jesus and Isaiah 42:9-17 is prophecy about the coming of Muhammad.

There isn't even an implication that God was talking about two seperate people. Whatever the case, Jesus fulfills both roles fine without the existence of Muhammed.

I believe that Isaiah 42:1-17 is a prophecy about Muhammad because Jesus in the New Testament called the Gentiles and that he said he was only send to the lost sheep of Israel.

Yet Jesus was the light of the Gentiles and the Jews was he not? Remember, we are children of Israel when we accept Christ as our Savior.

You still haven't answered my question about if the Arabs are descandant of Ishmael? and has God fulfil his promise to Hagar? or did God lie to Hagar?

You have yet to answer if there is any proof that the Arabs are the descendants of Ishmael. Don't give me, the Qu'ran says so or some genealogies Muslims have thought up to fit Muhammed's description in the Qu'ran. It is obvious that if the Arabs were not the people descending from Hagar, then some other great nation is -.-.

Sohail

May God Bless You All

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