Circular Reasoning -.-

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Feb 24, 2007 at 17:27

Forget about the bone beds because the flood didn't happened and here is my proof:

My friend, bring up new 'evidence' does not negate evidence a. So we shall not forget the bone beds because you have been ignoring it from the very beginning.

Now you say the flood happened in 2750bce in ancient egypt the second dynasty (2890 to 2686bce) was in rule and here are the rulers:

Hoptepsekhemwy, Raneb, Nynetjer, Wneg, Senedj, Seth-Peribsen, Sekhemib-Perenmaat, Khasekhemwy.

They was no flood worldwide during they reigns. If the worldwide flood did happen, then your god forgot to wipe out egypt.

I say that the Flood happened between 2500-3000 BC most likely. Notice that if the Egyptians had a Flood story, that it would have to be earlier than the earliest Egyptian empire. However, I am very curious about the Egyptian dating system. For now, this will suffice. I will research the matter. Though I do not know how to respond, I have found very sufficient Flood evidences.

However, what irritates me right now is that instead of answering my arguments, you simply ignore them and through out another one of yours. Please actually take the time to address my arguments so that we may have a mutually beneficial discussion.

I am saying that Moses didn't write the torah because Moses couldn't write down his own death:

5 And Moses the servant of the LORD died there in Moab, as the LORD had said. 6 He buried him in Moab, in the valley opposite Beth Peor, but to this day no one knows where his grave is. 7 Moses was a hundred and twenty years old when he died, yet his eyes were not weak nor his strength gone. 8 The Israelites grieved for Moses in the plains of Moab thirty days, until the time of weeping and mourning was over. Deut 34:5-8

Ah, I see what you are saying. That is a reasonable statement; however, one of Moses' followers could've finished off Deuteronomy. It's pretty obvious that up to Moses' death, the book was authored by Moses.

Jesus didn't die for my sins.

Prove that.

But The Romans only had around 750,000 troops and look at all the enemies they had within the empire and outside the empire.

If Israel had that many soldiers then how much did the egyptians have? how much did the assyrians have?

In those days, many Israelites were soldiers. It wasn't like only 10% of the people were soldiers. Remember, this is at the peak of the Jewish military, they basically declined after David.

I don't see that has good explanation for that contradiction.

Perhaps it's because you have already decided in your head that "God doesn't exist" and that "man knows what is best". If you took a reasonable look, you would understand that the two can be reconciled. If you were a historian, then you would look at as many sources of an empire and thing and try to reconciled 'alleged contradictions'. However, your viewpoint seems to be that if it doesn't look right, it's WRONG.

YHWH is still a pagan god.

Let us not be obstinate. Let us return to my illustration of the Chinese word for God and English word for sin. If those two 'sound' the same but are different languages, why do you still say that they are related in any way?!?

The argument that Judeo-Christianity is pitiful; the objective is for skeptists to shoot a giant net into every single myth, fable, fairy tale, religion, and story and if any of those have similarities, then they assume Christianity robbed their idea (which grows more inane since most of the material comes AFTER Christianity).

Let us be reasonable, if to be in Hebrew supposedly sounds (which we do not know mind you) like an ancient COMBINATION OF TWO GODS OF TWO OPPOSITE RELIGIONS then how can that be logical?!? Can Yahweh be ripped off a god named "Ya" and a god named "Wah" (which is in a different language with completely different meanings). This skeptical argument lacks foundation and evidence and defies logic.

Stop ignoring the prophecies -.-.

May God Bless You

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