Servant of christ

Submitted by John of Science (United Kingdom), Mar 2, 2007 at 12:19

I say that the Flood happened between 2500-3000 BC most likely. Notice that if the Egyptians had a Flood story, that it would have to be earlier than the earliest Egyptian empire. However, I am very curious about the Egyptian dating system. For now, this will suffice. I will research the matter. Though I do not know how to respond, I have found very sufficient Flood evidences.

Between 3000 and 2500bce 4 dynasties ruled Egypt and no big flood happened which wiped out Egypt. Shall I start talking about the Indus valley which has history of more than 5000 years?

However, what irritates me right now is that instead of answering my arguments, you simply ignore them and through out another one of yours. Please actually take the time to address my arguments so that we may have a mutually beneficial discussion.

My arguments are stronger than yours.

Ah, I see what you are saying. That is a reasonable statement; however, one of Moses' followers could've finished off Deuteronomy. It's pretty obvious that up to Moses' death, the book was authored by Moses.

Then maybe could explain to me why there are:

• two creation stories
• Two descriptions of the Abrahamic covenant.
• Two stories of the naming of Isaac.
• Two instances where Moses extracted water from two different rocks at two different locations called Meribah.
• Two accounts of God changing Jacob's name to Israel
• Two stories of Jacob travelling to Mesopotamia

Prove that.

Soon I will.

In those days, many Israelites were soldiers. It wasn't like only 10% of the people were soldiers. Remember, this is at the peak of the Jewish military, they basically declined after David.

Israel is at its peak today. Today it has more enemies than it has ever before.

Perhaps it's because you have already decided in your head that "God doesn't exist" and that "man knows what is best". If you took a reasonable look, you would understand that the two can be reconciled. If you were a historian, then you would look at as many sources of an empire and thing and try to reconciled 'alleged contradictions'. However, your viewpoint seems to be that if it doesn't look right, it's WRONG.

Look at the verses again:

9 Joab reported the number of the fighting men to the king: In Israel there were eight hundred thousand able-bodied men who could handle a sword, and in Judah five hundred thousand. 2 Samuel 24:9

5 Joab reported the number of the fighting men to David: In all Israel there were one million one hundred thousand men who could handle a sword, including four hundred and seventy thousand in Judah. 1 Chronicle 21:5

Can't you see that there is a big contradiction there?

Let us not be obstinate. Let us return to my illustration of the Chinese word for God and English word for sin. If those two 'sound' the same but are different languages, why do you still say that they are related in any way?!?

The argument that Judeo-Christianity is pitiful; the objective is for skeptists to shoot a giant net into every single myth, fable, fairy tale, religion, and story and if any of those have similarities, then they assume Christianity robbed their idea (which grows more inane since most of the material comes AFTER Christianity).

Let us be reasonable, if to be in Hebrew supposedly sounds (which we do not know mind you) like an ancient COMBINATION OF TWO GODS OF TWO OPPOSITE RELIGIONS then how can that be logical?!? Can Yahweh be ripped off a god named "Ya" and a god named "Wah" (which is in a different language with completely different meanings). This skeptical argument lacks foundation and evidence and defies logic.

You don't understand. I am saying that YHWH was worshipped has pagan God before the Israelites took him has there own God.

Here are some questions that you can answer:

1. What is Judeo-Christianity?

2. Why is it not Judeo-Christo-Islamic?

3. Jesus' tomb has been discovered. Do you think it is Jesus' tomb?

John of Science

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