Jesus is in Isaiah

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Jan 14, 2007 at 15:17

Where did Jesus establish justice when he was on the earth?

Did I not say that he would in the second coming?

I told you this already that Isaiah 42 is splitting in two prophecies, Isaiah 42:1-8 are for Jesus and Isaiah 42:9-17 are for Muhammad.

Now, why would you say that the passage is about two different people? There is nothing anywhere in that passage that hints that the person God is talking about in Isaiah 42:1-8 is different from the one in 42:9-17. Jesus can fulfill both passages by himself. Muhammad doesn't even need to be in the picture. If this really is Muhammad, why does what the Qu'ran say and the Old Testament say contradict?!?

May God Bless You

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