Wrong

Submitted by John of Science (United Kingdom), Feb 23, 2007 at 09:18

Bone beds point to the flood. Geology also can be answered by the Flood. The dimensions for an ark for a man in the desert region is points to divinity. The Egyptians may not have written down a Flood account but the Babylonians, Chinese, Native Americans, Greeks, etc wrote one down but their stories have no proof themselves, but in fact serve as proof to the Biblical account.

We can easily tie the bone beds, many religious flood stories, geology, and divine dimensions can be explained by the Flood.

Forget about the bone beds because the flood didn't happened and here is my proof:

Now you say the flood happened in 2750bce in ancient egypt the second dynasty (2890 to 2686bce) was in rule and here are the rulers:

Hoptepsekhemwy, Raneb, Nynetjer, Wneg, Senedj, Seth-Peribsen, Sekhemib-Perenmaat, Khasekhemwy.

They was no flood worldwide during they reigns. If the worldwide flood did happen, then your god forgot to wipe out egypt.

What's the second sentence? Are you trying to say Moses copied from the Egyptians? I wouldn't agree with that since from the beginning of Cain and Abel, murder was outlawed. Or are you saying Moses didn't author the Pentateuch/Torah? If so then what makes you say that?

I am saying that Moses didn't write the torah because Moses couldn't write down his own death:

5 And Moses the servant of the LORD died there in Moab, as the LORD had said. 6 He buried him in Moab, in the valley opposite Beth Peor, but to this day no one knows where his grave is. 7 Moses was a hundred and twenty years old when he died, yet his eyes were not weak nor his strength gone. 8 The Israelites grieved for Moses in the plains of Moab thirty days, until the time of weeping and mourning was over. Deut 34:5-8

Not really. Jesus freed us from our punishments in Hell so that we may be with him in Heaven. Not everyone has accepted Christ and those who have sometimes sin. Suffering ends after Jesus wipes out evil at the end of time.

Jesus didn't die for my sins.

Throughout the Bible, we see military figures similar to that. Perhaps the reason was that military was stressed upon since in the ancient world, warfare was about as essential as trade. Therefore it wouldn't be unreasonable to believe that Israel, in its geographic location especially (Assyria to the north, Persia to the south, Babylon to the West, Arabia to the West, Philistines, Edomites, Egyptians, etc), stressed upon military might.

But The Romans only had around 750,000 troops and look at all the enemies they had within the empire and outside the empire.

If Israel had that many soldiers then how much did the egyptians have? how much did the assyrians have?

So why is there a difference in numbers? Well let us examine an Amplified Bible which is a near word for word translation:
And Joab gave the sum of the numbering of the people to the king. There were in Israel 800,000 valiant men who drew the sword, and the men of Judah were 500,000. (2 Samuel 24:9) Amplified Bible

The Hebrew word for ‘valiant' means ‘men of honor' which may mean that these were the men who already had military experience. The remaining number in the difference of the numbers of 1 Kings and Chronicles are the soldiers with no battle experience. However, one cannot be completely sure although there are reconciliations.

I don't see that has good explanation for that contradiction.

YHWH is still a pagan god.

John of Science

---

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".