Who then is this Lamb of God Isaiah 53 Talks About?

Submitted by Servant of Christ (United States), Dec 2, 2006 at 19:31

Starting with Isaiah 52: 13-15 which says that this servant shall be raised or lifted these verses agree with the Quran:

"That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge; That they said (in boast): 'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of Allah.' But they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjunction to follow, for of a surety they killed him not. Nay, Allah raised him up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise. And there is none of the people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him (Jesus) Before his death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them. (The Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"

Yet if the Qu'ran agrees with the Bible, why does it reject the doctrine that Jesus is God which is so prevalent in the Bible? All the prophets and disciples were in agreement and then suddenly, Muhammad comes and says that they had it all wrong.

Your argument has a huge fallacy. If you say that this prophecy points to Jesus being raised up, then how can your next post say that this isn't Jesus. Make up your mind, is this referring to Jesus or not? The post above is saying that you believe this is Jesus and the post below denies that.

How can Jesus be raised up before his death when it talks about Jesus being marred and disfigured? The passage said that Jesus will be raised up (after his death).

First problem with this prophecy is that it says that this person has descendants but Jesus had no descendants. He was assigned a grave with the wicked but Jesus wasn't because he was assigned a grave with two criminals who were forgiven by Jesus and were promised a place in heaven. Third problem it says nor was any deceit in his mouth. Jesus lied to his family about going to Jerusalem ( John 7: 8-10) and lied in saying that he never taught in secret (John 18:20) and there is plenty more in the New Testament. Another problem is that the person in this prophecy will see his offspring and prolong his days. Jesus had no offspring nor did he live long.

The descendants part is not to be taken literally. They are the children of God, born again believers in God.

Both criminals were not forgiven. Only one was forgiven, the other was not (Luke 22:39-43). Crucifixion was a death for a criminal.

Even Islam upholds that Jesus Christ was sinless. John 7:8-10 says 'not yet', and when he thought that it was the right time, he left. You seem to have ignored verse 9, which says Jesus chose to remain at Galilee for a while before deciding it was the right time to go to the Feast. John 7:11 even says that Jesus began teaching halfway through the Feast which suggests that he got there late.

John 18:20 does not say Jesus is lying. Once again, you ignored another text:

Not until halfway through the Feast did Jesus go up to the temple courts and begin to teach (John 7:11 NIV) emphasis added

Your verse:

"I have spoken openly to the world," Jesus replied. "I always taught in synagogues or at the temple, where all the Jews come together. I said nothing in secret. (John 18:20 NIV)

I see no contradiction. Jesus left secretly, but taught openly at the temple.

I got a question for you:

If Isaiah 53 does refer to Jesus then why doesn't it talk about Jesus resurrection?

This is only one interpretation for this. I can show you another one.

You ignored this verse:

See, my servant will act wisely;
he will be raised and lifted up and highly exalted. (Isaiah 52:13 NIV) emphasis added

Jesus was raised up and highly exalted after his death.

And here's a question for you, who do you say is this prophecy referring to (Isaiah 52-53)? Who is the one who will remove the guilt of all people? Who is this blameless lamb?

May God Bless You All

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