Submitted by M Tovey (United States), Dec 29, 2021 at 15:14
If, after decades of following the research on Dr. Pipes' forum has done nothng else, it should be plain as the pain felt in the endless rounds of argument and debate that religious equivalance is not the sought after result, that obtaining such equivalency had never been the goal of achievement from before the time that the Gospel of the Savior hit the road to Damascus on its way to affecting essentially the entirety of human existence; this is proved in the forum here as the Islamic influences that are debated interjected a countering premise that follwoing a Jewish based discipleship violated the more humanistic edicts of a Quranic teaching that took parts of the Torah and Tanakh and through Persian readings of Arabic, attempted to absorb those teaching and impose its own form of religious dominance. If there is no religious equivalnce there, how does anyone expect it when considering the entirety of the religious spectrum was opposed by Islam in later replacement theological conquest of arguments that overran the entirety of the Asian and East Asian continental religions; and now threaten the rest of the now known world?
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