Submitted by Matthew (United Arab Emirates), Jan 10, 2022 at 12:12
Yes; you never said that, it was a reply to Prashant. I just gave a note to you in the end.
I don't provide links since I looked all of this up from books and references that were written way back.
I don't teach philosophy, I said that I have a degree in philology. Now go Google what that is.
كلمة الله means "word of God", and Muslims believe that Injeel was the word of God sent to Jesus and so was the Qur'an, Torah etc.
And I didn't put any homophones since it was a test for you and if you really know Arabic and its aspects; now I know you don't.
And you're using translators again, right? مايفشل can mean failure in a lot of ways. Now go to your translator and interpret it how you want to, then come back to me asking the meaning.
هي referred to the book itself and not the one who bought the book. People in those times used to think of the Qur'an as something alive, and that's why هي is used there.
And no, I won't tell you what University/college I teach in until and unless you reveal your name and your religion. Things should be on equal scales in my opinion.
And I am Christian, how many more times should I say it?
And UAE isn't America to throw me out for a reason as mere as that. It is one of the most tolerant ones out there, talking from experience.
Final note: read things correctly; stop pretending as if you know Arabic; stop using translators; and last but not the least: search what philology is on Google.
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