Submitted by Prashant (United States), Jan 4, 2022 at 00:16
Dear Dr. Pipes, your reader Prof Matthew from UAE said something that does not quite add up. At first, Prof Matthew said that Quran has no grammatical errors. That is a bold statement but we can accept it. Then, Matthew said that Quran was what established the Arabic grammar.
So, if quran defines the standard how can it violate the standard.
Something has gotta give here. But Islam uses circular logic: Allah said that muhammad is right who said that quran is right which said that Allah is right therefore all three are the only truth.
Perhaps the same logic applies to grammar also: quran is grammatical because quran defines the grammar.
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