Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Jan 11, 2022 at 12:25
Our dear Michael whose Hindu ancestors were brutalized by the Muslim invaders of India has no clue what is Aramaic and how much Aramaic in the Qur'an.
al-Tabari clearly does not know what the word طوى means. And as usual he tried with no success because this verse is really poorly written by the standards of Classical Arabic grammar/syntax. He finally tells us that the word طوى is THE NAME OF THE VALLEY.
Now, this is how we kuffar can fix this mess assuming that he was correct :
انك في وادي طوى المقدس
You are in the valley (notice that there is no definite article before Wadi) Tuwa (the name of the valley) the holy.
And now it makes perfect sense
Remember that al-Tabari was not an Arab and his knowledge of Aramaic was not the best.
Your so called prophet must have had very good knowledge of Aramaic after all he was a merchant who travelled often to Syriac for trading and in Syria Aramaic (as well as Greek) were the spoken language(s). And he must have understood the Aramaic meaning of the word Tuwa and the meaning was lost when al-Tabari wrote his tafsir 250-300 years later. Any guesses why was the meaning lost when al-Tabari Allah's editor in-chief wrote his exegesis? Hint: any guesses?
See? You are embarrassing yourself again
Hey, can you invite our dear Zakir to chat with us and we can all laugh together at you and your ignorance
Oh Mohamed Hegab? Sure sure sure he is a "scholar"
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