I am not a Muslim

Submitted by Matthew (United Arab Emirates), Jan 5, 2022 at 13:26

So, you have made a claim that the Qur'an defines grammar only because of the feelings of Muslims attached to it, but can you for sure say that educated scholars that have been studying it for years would be mistaken? Let's go back in time and see what various scholars have to say on the topic:
أشكر الله على إرسال كلمته المجيدة والبليغة لنا المضللين والمنقسمين
This is a statement of Ibn Ishaq on the topic.
يا الناس من خارج الجزيرة العربية! قراءة القرآن لتحقيق التميز في اللغة العربية الجميلة
This is something Abu Ubaydah said.
شكرا لك ، يا الله ، على تسليط الضوء علينا الأميين بكلمتك.
This is something written by Avicenna.
شكرا لك ، يا الله ، على تسليط الضوء علينا الأميين بكلمتك
This is something said by Umar Khayyam.
أشكر الله على إنشاء نظام قواعد لجميع الناس في جميع أنحاء هذا العالم حتى نتمكن من توحيد والتحدث باللغة العربية واحدة وليس حيرة أنفسنا مع إصدارات مختلفة منه
Muhammed Ibn Zakariya Al-Razi's gratitude towards the word of his God.
كلمة الله هي ما يفشل كل قوم الشعر
This is what Jabir Ibn Hayyan has to say.
(I wrote it roughly and didn't add a lot of ُ, و , َ, ا, ِ, ي, ْ, or ّ, as if you know Arabic, it wont matter if those are there or not there)
Remember, I don't go with the ideologies of Islam, but saying that the Qur'an isn't the peak of eloquence after the statements of so many learned men would be hard.
And dhimmi, for God's sake, don't translate the text I just sent you as translators aren't accurate.

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