Submitted by Peter Hall (Australia), Nov 29, 2011 at 01:19
You repeat the same gibberish
Tell me Slayhy, if Islam came to abolish slavery why is it that in the last 1400 years, the biggest player in the slave trade has been Muslims?
Why was it that the last Western Country to make Slavery was the US in 1860s yet 100 years later Saudi Arabia has an estimated 350,000 slaves?
Can you name one instance where a Muslim Country forced a Christian country to stop slavery? Well?
Saudi Arabia, like most Muslim countries only made slavery illegal when FORCED by Christian and Western countries.
Even now, the source or end users of slaves in most cases are still the Muslims, so by what measure do you use in saying Islam came to remove slavery?
You are the ignorant one who lies when confronted by facts. I have provided the references in the Muslim texts as my source.
Instead of providing any facts you revert to the time honoured Muslim practice of DENIAL.
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