How come Muslim Arabs do not call a book sifr our dear Amin? and how come it is still preserved in Christian Arabic?

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Mar 25, 2012 at 10:10

Oh could you tell the readers what is the subject of the following facebook page?

http://www.facebook.com/events/187867901262963/

Oh let me help you it is:

قراءة سفر التكوين

Let me help you: it means reading of sifr (the book of) Genesis

Do you know what this means?

1. It means that your claim that the word sifr is not used in Syriac or even in Arabic is bogus but this is Christian Arabic and the source of the word sifr here is from Syriac spar or book

2. Now you tell us how come your masters the Arabs do not use the word sifr (s.) or asfara (p) like Chrisian Arabs do? let me help you because it is not an Arabic word like tur but it is still preserved in Christian Arabic via Syriac

Now you tell us why the delusions?

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".