Submitted by Amin Riaz (United Kingdom), Jan 24, 2012 at 17:53
وقد زعم بعضُ أهل الغَباء أنّ العرب كانت لا تعرف "الرحمن"، ولم يكن ذلك في لغتها (1) ولذلك قال المشركون للنبي صلى الله عليه وسلم: (وَمَا الرَّحْمَنُ أَنَسْجُدُ لِمَا تَأْمُرُنَا) [سورة الفرقان: 60]
The fuller text explained they denied "Ar- Rahman" the whole concept of deity. Not just that it was in their language.
Unfortunately that is problematic for you:
http://answering-islam.org/Responses/Saifullah/rahman_deity.htm
How many times have you maintained the moon god theory?
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R H M is a common root. R A H M A N is a common pattern - so why would it be load word from Syriac?
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This root stretches to Aramaic - the parent of both languages... it is a common root.
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You also got your self into a muddle - with mixing R H M root with H B B - now that goes to bed too.
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