The word tur revisited and the Quranic claim that it is written in pure Arabic which is a bogus claim

Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Feb 12, 2012 at 10:14

Oh so if you can read Arabic our dear Amin can you tell the readers what does the following means

وجاء فى سورة النحل: (ولقد نعلم أنهم يقولون إنما يعلمه بشر لسان الذى يلحدون إليه أعجمى وهذا لسان عربى مبين) (4).

ونحن نسأل: " كيف يكون القرآن عربيًّا مبينًا ، وبه كلمات أعجمية كثيرة ، من فارسية ، وآشورية ، وسريانية ، وعبرية ، ويونانية ، ومصرية ، وحبشية ، وغيرها ؟ ".

So how can the Qur'an claims to be a book that is 3arabiyya(n) mubeena(n) when it is full of foreign words the likes of tur? you tell us

Some one is a liar here so who is the liar here?

Oh and how come no Arab use the word tur and instead they use the word gabal/jabal which is a real Arabic word you tell us

Note: Opinions expressed in comments are those of the authors alone and not necessarily those of Daniel Pipes. Original writing only, please. Comments are screened and in some cases edited before posting. Reasoned disagreement is welcome but not comments that are scurrilous, off-topic, commercial, disparaging religions, or otherwise inappropriate. For complete regulations, see the "Guidelines for Reader Comments".