Submitted by dhimmi no more (United States), Mar 17, 2012 at 08:17
Our dear Amin who lives among kuffar you tell us how come non of your masters the Arabs use the word sifr for book and instead they use the word kitab? any guesses?
and how come the Arabs do not use the Quranic word tur instead of jabal or mountain? any guesses?
It seems that your masters the Arabs do not follow Quranic Arabic or Quranic grammar as in the case of the disaster bism and tur and now sifr
What a disaster
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