Why "evidence" is a scary word

Submitted by Amin Riaz (United Kingdom), Nov 14, 2012 at 19:59

"Bishm is a perfect Syriac word and you can find it in the Peshitta and how dare you tell us what is Syriac and what is not when you were even clueless about the Syriac language?

...the Syriac letter sheen or ܫ becomes in Arabic seen س just like your name in Arabic is Riad and it becomes in Urdu or thatever language you speak Riaz now do you get it?"

He he . . . not it isn't - try finding it in a dictionary. And the constant and ridiculous attempts to demonise!

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"1. بسم or bism is poor Arabic

2. It should be بإسم or b'ism and even al-Tabari tells us the same"

Again - Tabari says no such thing. . . else where?

Dropping of the Alif is common for Hamza Wasli. That is perfectly fine.

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"3. So if it is a mistake in Quranic Arabic so where does it come from? It is as clear as it can get that it is from Syriac ܒܫܡ or bishm

4. Syriac sheen becomes Arabic seen that is a fact et voila we have Arabic bism but you know what? This is the rasm of the word is بسم and you know what? the ulama would have two options to read this word as بسم or bism or بشم or bishm! Now do you get it?"

We've been through this . . it is simply NONSENSE invented by you. Else - sources? Evidence References?

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So what does the word 3ibri mean? let me guess you have no clue and what does the word metathesis means? you have no clue right?

Right . . . except for what I've read here:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_Arabic

Hence - I do have a clue

Again no reference . . . no evidence . . . just nonsense.

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"The idot is he who makes a fool of himself and you did not once but several times"

This made me really hysterical with laughter . . . boo hoo!

It isn't me inventing things and easy lies . . . with Istilaam and whatnot . . . It is ABUNDANTLY clear - you do not know much Arabic if any . . . whether you are making up knowing Egyptian Dialect - I don't know.

But I know you do not have a clue when it comes to MS & Classical Arabic.

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